Answer:
$56,950
Explanation:
We will calculate the operating cash flow as follow;
OCF = {[($55 - $28.62) 8,500 ] - $170,000} × (1 - 0.35) + ($62,000 × 0.35)
= {[$224,230] - $170,000} × 0.65 + ($21,700)
= $35,249.5 + $21,700
= $56,950
Therefore, the operating cash flow is $56,950
Answer:
$4062
Explanation:
base salary of $1,200
+ 6% of each sale
so $1,200 + $390 + $619.20 + $42 + $70.80 + $1,740
=$4062
Answer:
The correct answer is: $12,000
Explanation:
uncollectible debt = 6% of net sales
= 6/100 × 200,000
= 0.06 × 200,000 = $12,000
Therefore, $12,000 will be removed (debited) from the bad debt expense because it is uncollectible, and it is added (credited) to the Allowance for Doubtful accounts as bad debt to be paid for in the bad debt reserve account.
Answer:
¥114.96/€
Explanation:
An intermarket arbitrage opportunity is the act of exploiting an arbitrage opportunity resulting from a pricing discrepancy among three different currencies in the foreign exchange market. Trading in foreign exchange takes place worldwide, the major currency trading centers are located in London, New York, and Tokyo.
In the given question, if you reverse all three exchange rates by calculating 1/rate (change yendollar into dollaryen and so forth), the choice that represents the required opportunity is ¥114.96/€
