Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:
<u>Substitute g(-3) into the function:</u>

<u>Multiply:</u>
<u />
<u>Add:</u>
<u />
Answer:
HJVJKN ,KMN,. MN
Step-by-step explanation:
Is it 80 m I think that’s the answer
Answer: 
This is the same as writing (n-m)/n
Don't forget about the parenthesis if you go with the second option.
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Explanation:
The probability that she wins is m/n, where m,n are placeholders for positive whole numbers.
For instance, m = 2 and n = 5 leads to m/n = 2/5. This would mean that out of n = 5 chances, she wins m = 2 times.
The probability of her not winning is 1 - (m/n). We subtract the probability of winning from 1 to get the probability of losing.
We could leave the answer like this, but your teacher says that the answer must be "in the form of a combined single fraction".
Doing a bit of algebra would have these steps

and now the expression is one single fraction.
Answer:
a. A customer earns 1 free night per 10 nights stayed.
Step-by-step explanation:
The missing function is:
f(x) = x/10
The missing options are:
<em>
a. A customer earns 1 free night per 10 nights stayed. </em>
<em>
b. A customer starts with 1 free night and then earns another free night after every 10 nights stayed.
</em>
<em>
c.A customer earns x – 10 free nights for every 10 nights stayed. </em>
<em>
d. A customer earns 10 free nights after x number of nights stayed.
</em>
The function means that after a customer stayed 10 nights, a free night is earned. That is, replacing x = 10 into the function, we get:
f(10) = 10/10 = 1
which means 10 nights are equivalent to 1 free night.