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iragen [17]
3 years ago
11

I need help with this. Please help!

Mathematics
1 answer:
olga55 [171]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

61%

Step-by-step explanation:

122 squares out of 200 hundred (122/200) is simplified as 61/100, so 61%

It helps to count each side of the large squares. 10 squares by 10 squares on each side = 100 squares total, and there are two squares, so double the 100.

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this year,15 of the 40 computers in the math lab are not new. which representation is equivalent to the fraction of computers th
just olya [345]

Answer:

5/8

Step-by-step explanation:

Subtract the total computers from the old computers.

40-15=25

Then put the number of new computers over the total computers

25/40

Then, simplify

5/8

3 0
3 years ago
(6.2N-8.3) +(9.1 + 1.4N)<br>​
lakkis [162]

Answer:

the answer is =7.6n+0.8

Step-by-step explanation:

hoped I helped

3 0
3 years ago
How to solve 0=4+n/5?
Alchen [17]
Let's solve your equation step-by-step.
<span>0=<span>4+<span>n/5
</span></span></span>Step 1: Simplify both sides of the equation.<span>0=<span><span><span>1/5</span>n</span>+4
</span></span>Step 2: Flip the equation.<span><span><span><span>1/5</span>n</span>+4</span>=0
</span>Step 3: Subtract 4 from both sides.<span><span><span><span><span>1/5</span>n</span>+4</span>−4</span>=<span>0−4
</span></span><span><span><span>1/5</span>n</span>=<span>−4
</span></span>Step 4: Divide both sides by 1/5.<span><span><span><span>1/5</span>n/</span><span>1/5 </span></span>=<span><span>−4/</span><span>15</span></span></span><span>n=<span>−20
</span></span>Answer:<span>n=<span>−<span>20</span></span></span>
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please explain and answer correctly!! George flips a colored chip that is red on one side and black on the other a total of 20 t
sergejj [24]

Answer:

The chip has no memory so the probability is just 1/2.

7 0
3 years ago
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The fine schedule for overdue books at the county library is modeled by the values in the table.
Tasya [4]

Answer:

The answer would be B!

Step-by-step explanation:

In the chart if you divide the number of days over due to the cost of the fine, you get 5/2 every time. therefore, if y is the cost in cents and x is the days overdue, you would multiply x5/2 or y=5/2x, so your answer is B (y=5/2x).  

hoped this helped :D

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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