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bekas [8.4K]
3 years ago
10

Bonner Automotive has shareholders' equity of $218,700. The firm owes a total of $141,000 of which 40 percent is payable within

the next year. The firm has net fixed assets of $209,800. What is the amount of the net working capital?
Business
1 answer:
MA_775_DIABLO [31]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

$93,500

Explanation:

Net Working Capital = Current Assets - Current Liabilities

Current Assets = Total Equity + Liability - Fixed Assets

= $218,700 + $141,000 - $209,800 = $149,900

Current Liability = $141,000 X 40% = $56,400

As out of total due 40% is payable within a year, which means it is current liability.

Net working capital = $149,900 (current assets) - $56,400 (current liability)

= $93,500

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In expectancy theory, valence refers to the:
Vinil7 [7]

In the expectancy theory, valence refers to the: A. amount of effort a person puts towards a known goal. B. individual's perceived probability of performing the task at a particular level. C. anticipated satisfaction or dissatisfaction that an individual feels towards an outcome.
5 0
3 years ago
Wind Fall, a manufacturer of leaf blowers, began operations this year. During this year, the company produced 10,000 leaf blower
Citrus2011 [14]

Answer: Option (a) $146,500 is correct.

Explanation:

Company produced = 10,000 leaf blowers

Company produced sold =  8,500 leaf blowers

Income statement of year-end:

Sales = $ 382,500

Cost of goods sold = 170,000

Gross margin = $ 212,500

Selling and administrative expenses = 60000

Net income = $ 152,500

Production costs per leaf blower total = $20

Variable cost of goods sold = 8500 × $16 = $136000

Variable selling and administrative expenses = 15% of 60000 = $9000

Fixed production Cost = 10000 × $4 = 40000

Fixed Selling & Administrative expenses = (100% - 15%) of 60000 = $51000

∴ Net income under variable costing = sales - Variable cost of goods sold - Variable selling and administrative expenses - Fixed production Cost - Fixed Selling & Administrative expenses

= 382,500 - 136000 - 9000 - 40000 - 51000

= 146500

4 0
3 years ago
Two mutually exclusive investment opportunities require an initial investment of $7 million. Investment A pays $1.5 million per
Nataly_w [17]

Answer:The cost of capital that will make both investments equal is 17.045%

Explanation:

Investment A

$1.5 million will be received in perpetuity we can there use perpetuity formula to Value investment A.

Value of Investment A = 1500 000/r

Investment B

$1.2 Million will be received in Investment B with a growth rate of 3% will then use Gordon's growth rate model to value investment B.

Value of investment B = (1200 000 x (1+0.03))/(r - 0.03)

Value of investment B = 1236000/(r - 0.03)

1500 000/r = 1236000/(r - 0.03)

1236000(r) = 1500000(r - 0.03)

(r - 0.03) = 1236000( r)/1500000

r - 0.03 = 0.824r

r - 0.824r = 0.03 = 0.176r = 0.03

r = 0.03/0.176 = 0.170454545

R = 17.045%

The cost of capital that will make both investments to be equal is 17.045%

4 0
3 years ago
alderwood estimates bad debt expense assuming that 1.5% of credit sales have historically been uncollectible. what is the balanc
gladu [14]

After accounting for bad debt expense, the remaining amount in the allowance for doubtful accounts is $7,950.

<h3>What is bad debt?</h3>

Bad debt, sometimes referred to as uncollectible accounts expense, is a sum of money owed to a creditor that is unlikely to be paid and for which the creditor is not willing to take action to collect for a variety of reasons, frequently due to the debtor not having the money to pay, for example due to a company going into liquidation or insolvency. Depending on accounting practices, regulatory considerations, and the institution provisioning, there are many technical definitions of what a bad debt is. Bank loans in the USA are referred to as "problem loans" if they are more than 90 days overdue. Accounting sources recommend deducting the entire amount of a bad debt from profit and loss or from a provision for bad debts as soon as it is anticipated.

To learn more about bad debt, visit:

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7 0
1 year ago
Arundel Company uses aging to estimate uncollectibles. At the end of the fiscal year, December 31, 2018, Accounts Receivable has
Ipatiy [6.2K]

Answer:

After the adjusting entry is made, Allowance for Doubtful Accounts balance is a credit balance of $22,290

Explanation:

Arundel Company uses aging to estimate uncollectibles.

Estimated uncollectibles = $250,000 x ( 1 - 99.5%) + $70,000 x (1 - 91%) + $30,000 x (1 - 73%) + $8,000 x (1 - 17%) = $1250 + $6,300 + $8,100 + $6,640 = $22,290

The current unadjusted Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts balance is a debit balance of $2,000.

Bad debt Expense = $22,290 + $2,000 = $24,290

The adjusting entry:

Debit Bad debt Expense $24,290

Credit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $24,290

After the adjusting entry is made, Allowance for Doubtful Accounts balance is a credit balance of $22,290

4 0
3 years ago
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