Step-by-step explanation: |x − y| = 1, ok lets play as Alice, my number is y, and the bob number is x.
the condition says that x-y = 1 or x-y = -1.
so, if you know x, then y = 1 +y or y = y - 1. so you have two possibilities.
let's see two cases : first, let's suppose there are no code in the conversation. Then the only way of being shure of your number, is if one of them have the lowest positive number, so the other should have the next one. So if Bob have the number one, Alice knows for shure that she has the 2. Bob knows that she has a 2, but that means he could have a 1 or a 3, but when he sees that Alice is shure about her number, he knows that his number is the 1.
the second case is where the conversation may be a sort of code, saying a phrase x times and changing when x = the number of the other person, in this case, bob will have the 201 and alice the 202.
Answer: 135, 45, and 135 are the three other angles
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Explanation:
For a parallelogram, we'll have opposite angles with the same measure. So if one angle is 45 degrees, then the opposite angle is also 45 degrees. The other two angles are 180-45 = 135 degrees each. Adjacent angles in a parallelogram add to 180 degrees.
For this case we must follow the steps below:
step 1:
We place each of the given points on a coordinate axis
Step 2:
We join the AC points (represented by the orange line)
We join the BD points (represented by the blue line)
It is observed that the resulting figure after placing the 4 points on a coordinate axis, turns out to be a rhombus.
In addition, the blue and orange lines turn out to be perpendicular, that is, they have an angle of 90 degrees between them. This can be verified by finding the slopes of each of the two straight lines (blue and orange), which must be opposite reciprocal, that is, they comply: 
In this case, the slope of the orange line is 
and that of the blue line is 
Then 
, it is verified that they are perpendicular.
Thus, the conclusion is that ABCD is a rhombus and AC is perpendicular to BD.
Answer:
See attached image
Option D
- We have 52 cards in a deck of cards.
- We have 4 cards of the same number (4 jack, 4 aces...).
Probability of drawing a jack = 4/52
Probability of drawing a jack followed by an ace =(4/52)*(4/52)=0.00592
I believe the answer is “one solution”. I hope this helps :)
