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4 years ago

Why does y=cos(2x)sin(2x) simplify to y=sin(4x)/2 for derivatives?

Mathematics

1 answer:

kramer4 years ago

3 0

Answer:

First y

y=0

second y

y=0

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RSB [31]

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Step-by-step explanation:

$k - 4.8=0.32 - 5.4k\\\mathrm{Multiply\:both\:sides\:by\:}100\\k\times\:100-4.8\times\:100=0.32\times\:100-5.4k\times\:100\\\\Refine\\100k-480=32-540k\\\\Add\: 480\mathrm{\:to\:both\:sides}\\100k-480+480=32-540k+480\\\\Simplify\\100k=-540k+512\\\\\mathrm{Add\:}540k\mathrm{\:to\:both\:sides}\\100k+540k=-540k+512+540k\\\\Simplify\\640k=512\\\\\mathrm{Divide\:both\:sides\:by\:}640\\\frac{640k}{640}=\frac{512}{640}\\\\k=\frac{4}{5}$

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3 years ago

Why does y=cos(2x)sin(2x)​ simplify to y=sin(4x)/2 for derivatives?

Why does y=cos(2x)sin(2x) simplify to y=sin(4x)/2 for derivatives?