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Serga [27]
3 years ago
14

How did the agrarian Ottoman and Russian Empires, both with large landholding ruling classes, respond to the western European in

dustrial challenge during the 1800s?
History
1 answer:
kodGreya [7K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Not well as they remained the only countries in Europe where feudal system still existed.

Explanation:

  • Ottoman Empire started declining in 17th Century. Sultans didn't realized that certain reforms are necessary to strengthen the country. Some of them were done in 19th Century, but it wasn't enough. Industrialization hasn't spread.
  • Case in Russia was even worse.
  • Absolute monarchs in Russia didn't allowed any changes. There was no industrialization, no constitution. The reforms are done just in 1905.
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Answer:

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Explanation:

A is correct because new navigational instruments and technology were premise for the Age of Exploration, which led to discovery of New World and later its colonization.

B is not correct because it allowed Europeans to expand more than ever, didn't keep them.

C is not correct because it didn't affected scholarly system in Europe.

D is not correct because on the contrary, it actually weekend Natives in America.

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4 years ago
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Hello,

Here is your answer:

The proper answer to this question is that "Colonies from being again threatened to be split into two parts and definitively locked down the way of penetration from Canada." Which means they spilt the 12 colonies and and kept immigrant's from coming from Canada!

If you need anymore help feel free to ask me!

Hope this helps!
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