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3 years ago

Z times 231 equals 256 write as an equation

Mathematics

2 answers:

oksano4ka [1.4K]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

231z = 256

Step-by-step explanation:

231z = 256. That's all you have to do. If you wish, divide both sides by 231 to find the value of z.

nordsb [41]3 years ago

5 0

231(z)=256

Hope this helps :)

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What happens to the standard deviation of the average of a sample as the sample size increases? Group of answer choices It gets

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Answer:

Gets smaller

Step-by-step explanation:

- The standard deviation is the quantification of spread of data. According to descriptive statistics the standard deviation s is given by:

s = Σ ( x - u ) / sqrt ( n )

Where, n : sample size

u : Mean value

- So we see that standard deviation (s) is inversely proportional to square root of sample size (n).

- We can see that as sample size (n) increases the standard deviation (s) decreases.

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3 years ago

What is the perimeter of a rectangle with a length of 48 inches and a width of 16 inches

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Answer: 128 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

let's start with the perimeter: the perimeter is the total length to the sides/edges of a shape.

since we're dealing with a rectangle, there will be 4 sides

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4 years ago

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Let the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie have a Poisson distribution. We want the probability that a cookie

ludmilkaskok [199]

Answer:

$\lambda \geq 6.63835$

Step-by-step explanation:

The Poisson Distribution is "a discrete probability distribution that expresses the probability of a given number of events occurring in a fixed interval of time or space if these events occur with a known constant mean rate and independently of the time since the last event".

Let X the random variable that represent the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie. We know that $X \sim Poisson(\lambda)$

The probability mass function for the random variable is given by:

$f(x)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^x}{x!} , x=0,1,2,3,4,...$

And f(x)=0 for other case.

For this distribution the expected value is the same parameter $\lambda$

$E(X)=\mu =\lambda$

On this case we are interested on the probability of having at least two chocolate chips, and using the complement rule we have this:

$P(X\geq 2)=1-P(X$

Using the pmf we can find the individual probabilities like this:

$P(X=0)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^0}{0!}=e^{-\lambda}$

$P(X=1)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^1}{1!}=\lambda e^{-\lambda}$

And replacing we have this:

$P(X\geq 2)=1-[P(X=0)+P(X=1)]=1-[e^{-\lambda} +\lambda e^{-\lambda}[]$

$P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)$

And we want this probability that at least of 99%, so we can set upt the following inequality:

$P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)\geq 0.99$

And now we can solve for $\lambda$

$0.01 \geq e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)$

Applying natural log on both sides we have:

$ln(0.01) \geq ln(e^{-\lambda}+ln(1+\lambda)$

$ln(0.01) \geq -\lambda+ln(1+\lambda)$

$\lambda-ln(1+\lambda)+ln(0.01) \geq 0$

Thats a no linear equation but if we use a numerical method like the Newthon raphson Method or the Jacobi method we find a good point of estimate for the solution.

Using the Newthon Raphson method, we apply this formula:

$x_{n+1}=x_n -\frac{f(x_n)}{f'(x_n)}$

Where :

$f(x_n)=\lambda -ln(1+\lambda)+ln(0.01)$

$f'(x_n)=1-\frac{1}{1+\lambda}$

Iterating as shown on the figure attached we find a final solution given by:

$\lambda \geq 6.63835$

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3 years ago

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pychu [463]

Answer: The distribution of the data set is positively skewed.

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