Answer:
Current yield is 6.17%
<em>YTD is 5.43%</em>
<em>YTC is 4.26%</em>
Explanation:
Tenor: 15 years
-> number of payment (NPer) is 30 (= 15 years * 2 for semiannual)
Coupon rate: 7.4%
- > semiannual payments (PMT): $37 = ($1000*7.4%/2)
Future value (FV): $1000
Present value (PV): $1200
Current yield = annual coupon/ current price = $37*2/$1200 = 6.17%
<u>Extra: </u>
We use excel to calculate yield to date (YTD) or nominal yield:
= Rate(Nper, PMT, - PV,FV) = Rate(30,37,-1200,1000) = 2.717% semiannual
-> annual rate is 5.43%
The bond issue is callable in 5 years at a call price of $1,074, then FV is $1074
Yield to call = rate(10,37,-1200,1074) = 2.13% semiannual
-> annual rate is 4.26%
Answer:
$45,473
Explanation:
Base on the scenario been described in the question, we can use this method to solve the problem.
Solution:
$42,000 + $4,960 – $1,100 – ($1,830 – $1,380) + ($381 – $318)
= $46,960- $,1,100-$450-$63
=$45,473
As our answer
so,nominally,................... (copied by :- @-Venkatesh Rao cheap tricks-)
Apply for a credit-<span>builder loan \</span><span>Eliminate credit card balances.
</span>
Based on the information given for Server Company, the machine will be valued a<u>t $42,000 </u>and the machinery account will be credited.
<h3>What would be the value of the machine?</h3>
The machine was sold on January 1, 20X9 and at that point, the accumulated depreciation was $28,000.
The value of the machine was therefore:
= Cost of machine - Accumulated depreciation
= 70,000 - 28,000
= $42,000
Find out more on accumulated depreciation at brainly.com/question/1287985.
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