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elena-14-01-66 [18.8K]
3 years ago
10

As a manager of the NHQ project, you are performing quantitative risk analysis. You have discovered that one project risk has a

40 percent probability of occurring and would cost the project $67,000. What is the expected monetary value of the risk event
Business
1 answer:
cestrela7 [59]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

$26,800

Explanation:

Data given in the question

Probability of the risk = 40%

Cost of the project = $67,000

So by considering the above information

The expected monetary value of the risk event is

= Probability of the risk × cost of the project

= 40% × $67,000

= $26,800

By multiplying the probability with the cost of the project, the expected monetary value could come

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Answer:

Avoidable cost

Explanation:

An avoidable cost can be eliminated in a whole. Such a cost can be explained as an expense that would not happen if the specific activity is not done. These costs are relevant costs. A very good example of such a cost is labour cost. If there is a decision to stop a product line for example, all costs that have a relationship with this product line will also be stopped.

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Your client has a documentary film coming out next month. They have three separate 30-second promo videos and want to identify w
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It's an opportunity to give a good impression or introduction of yourself. It can capture the attention of a potential employer
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Period

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6 0
2 years ago
ECONOMICS, PLEASE HELP.
Nina [5.8K]

Equilibrium is the point where supply meets demand. Look at the table and see where those two columns are the same.

For B. look at the chart and see at 1,50 rent (the first column) the demand is greater than supply or not. If demand is less than supply, there is a surplus. If demand is higher, there is a shortage.

This applies to question C as well. Look at the first column, find the rent, and see if there is more supply or more demand.


3 0
3 years ago
Sweet Company’s outstanding stock consists of 1,000 shares of noncumulative 5% preferred stock with a $100 par value and 10,000
avanturin [10]

Answer:

Option (D) is correct.

Explanation:

Preferred dividend per year:

= (Outstanding preferred stock × Par value of preferred stock ) × 5% preferred stock

= (1,000 × $100) × 5%

= ($100,000) × 5%

= $5,000

Any balance left over would be paid to common stockholders.

Year 1:

Paid to preferred stockholders = $2,000

Paid to common stockholders = 0

Year 2:

Paid to preferred stockholders = $5,000

Paid to common stockholders = ($6,000 - $5,000)

                                                  = $1,000

Year 3:

Paid to preferred stockholders = $5,000

Paid to common stockholders = ($32,000 - $5,000)

                                                  = $27,000

Therefore,

Total amount of dividends paid to preferred Shareholders:

= Year 1 + Year 2 + Year 3

= $2,000 + $5,000 + $5,000

= $12,000

Total amount of dividends paid to common Shareholders:

= Year 1 + Year 2 + Year 3

= $0 + $1,000 + $27,000

= $28,000

5 0
3 years ago
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