Answer:
All of the answers are correct.
Explanation:
At the beginning of the accounting period a pre-determined overhead is computed by dividing the estimated overhead production by the estimated basis of operations. The default overhead rate is then applied to manufacturing, so that the standard cost for a product may be calculated
The purpose of using pretermined overhead rates are
Delays in product costing can be avoided
Variation in cost assignment due to seasonality can be prevented
Variation in cost assignment due to short-term variations in volume can be prevented
The Use of predetermined overhead rates serves all the above purposes
Hence, all answers are correct.
Answer:
c. $2,580
Explanation:
Calculation for What was its net operating working capital that was financed by investors
Current assets $3,300
Less Accounts payable ($575)
Less Accrued wages and taxes ($145)
Net operating working capital $2,580
($3,300-$575-$145)
Therefore What was its net operating working capital that was financed by investors will be $2,580
$13.27 is the fund's number of shares outstanding
Solution:
Given,
The All-Star Basic Value Fund's portfolio is valued at $250 million
Liabilities of $23 million
Net asset value = 17,100,000
Now ,
To find , fund's number of shares outstanding :
NAV = ($250 million - $23 million)/17.1 million = $13.27
$13.27 is the fund's number of shares outstanding
Answer: (A) True
Explanation:
Yes, the given statement is true that the risk pooling is one of the type of strategy which basically helps in explaining about the demand variability and also decrease the aggregate demand variance in the market.
The main objective of the risk pooling is to maintain the inventory stock level and also avoiding the out of stock situation in the management.
By using the risk pooling strategy the various types of warehouse and companies are reduce the level of safety stock in the supply chain management and also transferring their risk to another organization such as insurance company.
Therefore, the given statement is true.
Answer:
$4.67 per share
Explanation:
The calculation of the diluted earning per share is given below:
= (Total income - preference dividends) ÷ (outstanding shares + diluted shares)
where,
Total income is $50,000
Outstanding shares is 10,000
And, the diluted shares is computed by following calculations
Amount paid towards shares = Options issued × Exercise price per share
= 1,000 × $6
= $6,000
And,
Value of options = Amount paid towards shares ÷ Current market price
= $6,000 ÷ $20
= 300
Therefore,
Diluted shares is
= Options issued - value of options
= 1,000 - 300
= 700
So Diluted Earnings per share is
= ($50,000) ÷ (10,000 + 700)
= $4.67 per share
