Complete question:
On January 1. Year 1. White Co. sold a property with a remaining useful life of 20 years to Blue Co. for $900.000. At the same time. White entered into a contract with Blue for the right to use the property (leaseback) for a period of 6 years. with annual rental payments of 580.000 that approximate the market rental payments for similar properties. On January 1. Year 1. the carrying amount of the property was 5680.000. and its fair value was 5770.000. A discount rate for the lease of 10% is used by both White and Blue. The present value factor for an ordinary annuity at 10% for 6 periods is 4.3553. The lease does not transfer the property to White at the end of the lease term and does not include a purchase option.
What amount of lease expense for the right of use of the property is recognised by White in Year 1 ?
A. $0
B. $130,000
C. $90,000
D. $220,000
Answer:
$90,000 amount of lease expense for the right of use of the property is recognised by White in Year 1
Explanation:
If the leaseback is known as an operating lease, the original transition to the buyer-lessor of the asset should be taken into account as the selling of an asset, given that all the income identification requirements have been fulfilled.
If the deal is of equal value, the lender lease is informed of the gain or loss of sale between the purchase price and the sum of the land that is held. Yet this is not a equal value trade. The property's sale price is higher than its market value. Accordingly, the income or loss on sale seems to be the difference between the equal worth and the value of the land.
Therefore, on 1 January, White records a benefit of $90,000 in revenue of $770,000 (fair value of $680,000 in carrying amounts)
Answer:
B) calculate the number of years required for real GDP to double
Explanation:
The rule of 70 calculates the amount of time it takes for an investment to double.
Given the annual rate of economic growth, the rule of 70 calculates the number of years required for real GDP to double.
It is calculated as 70 / annual rate of economic growth.
I hope my answer helps you.
Please attach the graph if you can. Otherwise, I cannot answer this question
Answer:
Fixed deferred annuity
Explanation:
Fixed deferred annuity is a form of saving investment where interest is paid on the invested amount at a rate set by the investment company and defined in the contract , and the interest can be deferred into the future till a withdrawal is made from the annuity contract.
Taxes are not paid but deferred until withdrawal which allows the opportunity to control when to pay taxes , a good investment sense for long term investment.
This makes it a good investment for a risk adverse investor who will not require investment income until later years but its main goal is retirement income and preservation of capital.
Answer:
$160 overapplied
Explanation:
Icy Mocha company estimates it's factory overhead costs to be $35,000 and machine hours to be 5,000 for a period of one year.
The actual number of hours worked on job 333 and 334 equals a total of 4,980
The actual factory overhead costs are $34,700
The first step is to calculate the predetermined overhead rate
= Overhead costs/machine hours
= $35,000/5,000
= $7
The amount of either over or underapplied factory costs can be calculated as follows
= predetermined overhead rate×actual number of hours worked
= $7×4,980
= $34,860
The amount is then subtracted from the actual overhead costs
= $34,700-$34860
= -$160
= $160 overapplied
Hence the amount of overapplied factory overhead is $160
