Answer:
a) 9.00 %
b) 7.80 %
c) yes the weight of the debt increases here is more risk in the investment as the debt payment are mandatory and failing to do so result in bankruptcy while the stock can wait to receive dividends if the income statement are good enough
d) 9.00 %
e) The increase in debt may lñead to an increase in return of the stockholders if they consider the stock riskier than before and will raise their return until the WACC equalize at the initial point beforethe trade-off occurs
Explanation:
a)
Ke 0.12
Equity weight 0.5
Kd(1-t) = after tax cost of debt = 0.06
Debt Weight = 0.5
WACC 9.00000%
c)
Ke 0.12
Equity weight 0.3
Kd(1-t) = after tax cost of debt = 0.06
Debt Weight 0.7
WACC 7.80000%
d)
<em>Ke 0.16</em>
Equity weight 0.3
Kd(1-t) = after tax cost of debt = 0.06
Debt Weight 0.7
WACC 9.00000%
Answer:
b. 300,000 shares being sold is an issuer transaction and the 200,000 shares being sold is a non-issuer transaction.
Explanation:
A non-issuer transaction is a transaction that does not directly benefit an issuer or it was not directly executed to benefit an issuer.
According to the Uniform State Law, an entity involved in the sales of certificates of interest, leases, mining titles among others is officially exempted from being labelled as an issuer. Hence, the entity (officers of the firm) in the question are non-issuer brokers.
Specifically, when the sales of stock are carried out by someone or an individual who is not a registered stockbroker, that individual officially becomes what is called 'a non-issuer broker-dealer'. The implication is that such a transaction is to be exempted from the registration requirements of the Security Exchange Commission.
In this question, since the issuer newly issued 300,000 shares while the remaining 200,000 in the proposed combination was offered by Officers of the firm - non-issuer broker-dealers. The Law states that it must be separated to show that 300,000 shares are sold in an issuer transaction (Primary) directly involving an official issuer while 200,000 shares are sold in a non-issuer transaction (Secondary).
Answer:
PV= $62,158.4
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Annual payment= $6,400
Number of periods= 15 years
Interest rate= 6% = 0.06
<u>First, we need to calculate the future value using the following formula:</u>
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual payment
FV= {6,400*[(1.06^15) - 1]} / 0.06
FV= $148,966.21
<u>Now, the present value:</u>
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 148,966.21 / (1.06^15)
PV= $62,158.4
Answer:
40%
Explanation:
The index of openness measures how much a country is exposed to international trade. It is calculated by this formula:
Index of Openness= (Exports(X)+Imports (M))/GDP
Index of Openness= (2 billion+2 billion )/10 billion
Index of Openness= 0,4*100=40%
Examples<span> of the Supply and </span>Demand<span> Concept. Supply refers to the amount of goods that are available. </span>Demand<span> refers to how many people want those goods. When supply of a product goes up, the price of a product goes down and </span>demand<span> for the product can rise because it costs loss.</span>
