The valuation of the fringe benefit will be 3600.
<h3>How to calculate the benefits?</h3>
The valuation of the fringe benefit will be calculated thus:
= (2 × miles in each direction) × number of weeks × benefit rate
= (2 × 24) × 50 × 1.50
= 48 × 59 × 1.50
= 3600
In conclusion, the valuation of the fringe benefit will be 3600.
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Answer:
$100,000
Explanation:
Contribution Margin=Sales Revenue − Variable Costs
<u>For segment 1 </u>
Sales = $500,000
Variable costs = $400,000
Contribution Margin = $100,000
Therefore the contribution margin presented for segment number 1 is $100,000 while the attributable common cost for segment 1 will be (0.6*320,000) = $192,000
Answer:
Because if you were robbed and you wanted to show the police the items you lost you could present to them those photos.
If you were also renting out a room to someone and they went snoopin around and broke or stole some of those possessions you can have evidence in court.
Hope it helps! :)
Answer:
E. None of the above
Explanation:
The standard reaction function of firm 2 is given as = a-Cb/2b - 1/2*Qa
P = 30 - (Qa + Qb)
where a = 30 b = 1 and C = 3.
Leader's output = (a + Cb - 2Ca)/2b
Leader's output = (30 + 3 - 3*2)/2
= 13.5 units.
Reaction function of firm B,
Qb = 30 - 3/2
= 13.5 - 1/2*13.5
= 6.75 units.
P = 30 - (13.5 - 6.75)
= $9.75
Therefore, The price of this new drink in the long run if the industry is a Stackelberg duopoly is $9.75
Answer:
-$300 million
Explanation:
Change in net working capital (CNWC) = $100 million
Capital Expenditures (CE) = $200 million
Assuming no depreciation expenses, the free cash flow (FCF) is given by:
Since no revenues are expected until the next year, EBIT = 0.
The project's free cash flow today is -$300 million.
