Answer:
B. $1,639
Explanation:
To do arbitraje we will ask at Bank A for $0.305
and then bid in Bank B at $0.306
As the transactions has no cost we are doing a profit by using the exchange as they allowed. Doing this procedure will at some point eliminate the difference in exchange rate for these bank as the purchase will rise the ask rate for Bank A and the sale will decrease the bid rate.
Total: 501639,3442622951
The profit will be for: 501,639.34 - 500,000 = 1,639.34
I was stuck on the same thing in my class test. I ended up failing but if I get the answers to it I’ll totally send them to you!!!
Answer: $1,288.98
Explanation: The cost of the Insurance is calculated at a cost per $100 of value. The first step is to calculate how many 100s are in the value of the property. This is done by dividing 1,023,000 by 100 = 10,230. Next, you need to multiply 10,230 by the rate of .126, which equals $1,288.98, the cost of the cost.
Answer:
What the investors will do depends on whether the actual return will be higher, lower or the same as the required return (Opportunity cost of capital) .
The Actual return can be calculated using the Holding Period Return which is;
= (Earnings(Dividends) + (Ending Stock Price - Beginning Stock Price))/Beginning Stock Price
= (2 + (52 - 50))/50
= 4/50
= 8%
The Opportunity Cost of Capital can be calculated using CAPM.
= Risk Free Rate + beta(Market Premium)
= 4% + 0.75(7%)
= 9.25%
The Opportunity Cost of Capital is greater than the Actual Return from the stock so the stock is a bad buy.
Investors will not invest.
