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just olya [345]
3 years ago
9

Todd has 250% more video games than jaylon Todd has 56 video games he give jaylon 8 games how many games did they both have in t

he beginning
Mathematics
2 answers:
topjm [15]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Todd originally had 64 games; Jaylon had eight.

Step-by-step explanation:

If Todd has 56 games now, after having given eight games to Jaylon, Todd must have started with 64 games.

Let x = Jaylon's original games.

If Todd has <em>250 % more games</em> than Jaylon, he has <em>3.5 times as many </em>games as Jaylon.

Let x = Jaylon's original number of games. Then

x+ 8 = Jaylon's games now

                                                 ∴ 56 = 3.5(x+8)

Distribute the 3.5                        56 = 3.5x +28

Subtract 26 from each side     3.5x = 26

Divide each side by 3.5               x = 8

Jaylon originally had eight video games.

Check:

64 - 8 = 3.5(8 + 8)

    56 = 3.5 × 16

    56 = 56

yaroslaw [1]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

your answer is8 video games have a nice day :)

Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

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And we can use the probability mass function and we got:

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And adding we got:

P(X \leq 2)=0.0115+0.0576+0.1369 = 0.2061

b) P(X=4)=(20C4)(0.2)^4 (1-0.2)^{20-4}=0.2182  

c) P(X>3) = 1-P(X \leq 3) = 1- [P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)+P(X=3)]

P(X=0)=(20C0)(0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{20-0}=0.0115  

P(X=1)=(20C1)(0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{20-1}=0.0576  

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And replacing we got:

P(X>3) = 1-[0.0115+0.0576+0.1369+0.2054]= 1-0.4114= 0.5886

d) E(X) = 20*0.2= 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts  

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".  

Solution to the problem  

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:  

X \sim Binom(n=20, p=0.2)  

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

Part a

We want this probability:

P(X \leq 2)= P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)

And we can use the probability mass function and we got:

P(X=0)=(20C0)(0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{20-0}=0.0115  

P(X=1)=(20C1)(0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{20-1}=0.0576  

P(X=2)=(20C2)(0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{20-2}=0.1369  

And adding we got:

P(X \leq 2)=0.0115+0.0576+0.1369 = 0.2061

Part b

We want this probability:

P(X=4)

And using the probability mass function we got:

P(X=4)=(20C4)(0.2)^4 (1-0.2)^{20-4}=0.2182  

Part c

We want this probability:

P(X>3)

We can use the complement rule and we got:

P(X>3) = 1-P(X \leq 3) = 1- [P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)+P(X=3)]

P(X=0)=(20C0)(0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{20-0}=0.0115  

P(X=1)=(20C1)(0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{20-1}=0.0576  

P(X=2)=(20C2)(0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{20-2}=0.1369

P(X=3)=(20C3)(0.2)^3 (1-0.2)^{20-3}=0.2054

And replacing we got:

P(X>3) = 1-[0.0115+0.0576+0.1369+0.2054]= 1-0.4114= 0.5886

Part d

The expected value is given by:

E(X) = np

And replacing we got:

E(X) = 20*0.2= 4

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Answer:

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