Answer:
A) $800,000
Explanation:
Since the current reserve ratio is 20%, and the bank has no excess reserves, then the maximum it can lend if it receives $1 is $800,000.
The bank has currently $50 million in deposits and $10 million in reserves ($6 million in cash and $4 million in the Fed), so its reserves are exactly 20% of its total deposits. So if any new deposits are received, the bank will have to keep as reserves 20% of it (= $1,000,000 x 20% = $200,000).
This type of banking system is called the fractional banking system because banks are only required to keep a fraction of the money they receive as deposits and they can lend the rest to other clients.
Answer:
NPV = $23,146.99
Explanation:
The net present value is the present value of after tax cash flows from an investment less the amount invested.
The NPV can be calculated using a financial calculator:
Cash flow in year o = $- 130,000
Cash flow each year in year 1 and 2 = 0
Cash flow each year in year 3 to 12 = $34,000
I = 12%
NPV = $23,146.99
To find the NPV using a financial calacutor:
1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.
2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.
3. Press compute
I hope my answer helps you
The owner of the property, who allow the lien, is relate to as the Lienee and the person who has the advantage of the lien is referred to as the Lienor or Lien holder.
In the United States, the term lien usually pertain to a wide range of encumbrances and would involve other forms of mortgage or charge.
Answer:
The solution to this question can be defined as follows:
Explanation:
In point a:
When consumer interest decreases, => consumers begin and save less and more, => MPC decreases; => the "IS" curve becomes flatter; => "IS" turns inside. Currently, 'AD' shows together all the goods and financial sector, => as the 'IS' curve adjusts inside the industry, => the 'AD' would also change to the left.
In point b:
Take into account the SR models of "IS-LM" and "AD-AS."
Therefore there is the case of a full job only at the beginning; => its optimum between "IS1" and "LM" in the "IS-LM" model; as well as the main equilibrium among "AD1" and "AS" in the "AD-AS" model "E1'," => the original equilibrium among "Y=Yf," "r=r1" and "P=P1." That now the consumer is reducing the confidence, => the 'IS' curve becomes shifting IMEI 'IS2,' => provided the 'LM' curve, that new balance is 'E2.' That's why the price in the SR is calculated, the AS will change =>, however, the AD also will shift the "AD2" side and "E2'" will become the equilibrium point in the "AD-AS" system, "r=r2 <r1" and "P=P1" throughout the new "Y=Y2 <Yf" balance.
Please find the graph file in the attachment.
Answer:
net là một thị trường hiệu quả hay không hiệu quả
Explanation:
