Answer:
$11,650
Explanation:
The adjusted cash balance per bank at August 31 2022 is calculated as;
= Cash balance per bank - Outstanding checks + Deposits in transits
Given that;
Cash balance per bank = $10,690
Outstanding checks = $840
Deposits in transits = $1,800
= $10,690 - $840 + $1,800
= $11,650
Therefore the adjusted cash balance per bank is $11,650. It means that the cash balance per bank statement has to be adjusted to accommodate outstanding checks and deposits in transit. For outstanding checks , they are checks that have not yet been found on the bank statement , while deposits in transit are those deposits, that have not yet been found or appear on the bank statement.
Answer:
Monthly Cell Phone Bill
Explanation:
Other things being equal, the higher the price of a good relative to a consumer's income, the greater the price elasticity of demand. Hence, the price elasticity of demand for low-priced items, such as thumbtacks and fish food, tends to be lower than the price elasticity of demand for relatively expensive items, such as monthly cell phone bill, that represent a more significant fraction of a consumer's annual income.
Be sure to consider not just the price, however, but also the overall portion of a consumer's annual income spent on an item. For example, one latte costs only $3.00, but for daily coffee drinkers the annual expense could be around $1,000. The elasticity of demand for lattes is therefore likely to be higher than that for other low-priced items (such as thumbtacks) that may need to be purchased only a few times annually.
They b<span>oth share responsibility and control over the property</span>
Answer:
The correct answer is (C) $401,302
Explanation:
To get how much the contest winner actually won, we have to calculate the amount receive at the end of each year discounted at this moment. Then, we added all the payments.
For example, the first payment in $200,000 at this moment, so we add $200,000.
At the end of the first year we receive $30,000, and the rate of discount is 8%
The formula of discount is P=A/ (1+r)ⁿ
A=Final amount
P= Principal
r= interest rate
n= time
Year 1 = A/ (1+r)ⁿ
=$30,000/1,08¹= 27777,77
Year 2 =$30,000/1,08²= 25720,16
Year 3=23814,96
Year 4=22050,89
Year 5=20417,49
Year 6=18905,08
Year 7=17504,71
Year 8=16208,06
Year 9=15007,46
Year 10=13895,80
Total 401302,44
Answer:
A. Liquidity management is a balancing act, managers try to find liquidity levels that are neither too high not too low.
Explanation:
Maintaining proper liquidity is an important financial objective of management. Proper liquidity management demands that an entity should be able to meet his short term financial obligation and making sure that liquid assets of the entity are not idle. In order to achieve this, the best way to go is to maintain a level that is neither too high and not too low. Not too high means the entity is not holding too much cash or liquid assets than it currently need to meet its short term financial obligation.
For example, not keeping too much cash in current account but investing them in interest-earning investment assets.
Not too low means the cash or liquid assets held by an entity should not less than the amount needed to meet its short term financial obligation. For example, making sure that the entity has enough cash or readily convertible liquid assets that can be used to pay vendors, rent, interest and meet other short term financial obligation.
Option B is false because keeping too much does not help to maximize short term earnings which is a feature of proper liquidity management. Option C is wrong because there is no guideline to support that deferring coupon payment won`t attract payment and this does not connote proper liquidity management.
Option D is obviously false and does not describe proper liquidity management.