<span>The correct answer is: [D]:
________________________________________________________
"assets that a company holds to earn a reasonable return, generally at minimum risk."
________________________________________________________</span>
Answer:
d) $677,532.
Explanation:
1.
Written down value of the equipment after 4 years = Cost x ( 100% - 1st year MACRS - Second-year MACRS - Third-year MACRS - Fourth-year MACRS ) = $3,500,000 x ( 100% - 20% - 32% - 19.20% - 11.52% ) = $604,800
2.
Now calculate the gain on the sale of equipment
Gain on the sale of equipment = Sale Price - Written down Value after 4 years = $715,000 - $604,800 = $110,200
3.
Tax owed = Gain on the sale x Tax rate = $110,200 x 34% = $37,468
After-tax salvage value = Sales price - Tax = $715,000 - $37,468 = $677,532
Answer: Yes, Suzette deposited the earnest money in the broker's trust fund account as directed. She also deposited the check within three business days of receipt. Unless there were written instructions to hold the check until acceptance of the offer, the check may be cashed
Unless the bankers are serious money moochers, the lowest interest (In Total Amount) will be:
C. Daily Compound
This is the most likely because the more time you take to pay your debt the more you have to pay in interest.
The answer is foreign currency fluctuations.
Foreign currency fluctuations are basically the change in the values of currencies based on the demand of that currency.
In other words, the more the number of investors invests in the stocks regulated by the stock market to buy exports of any country, the more will be the value of the currency of that particular country and vice versa.
Foreign currency fluctuation occurs for all floating currencies all over the world.
Since in the given case, the value of the euro changes from US$1 to US$1.60 from 2002 to 2008 respectively.
Hence, this change in value is called Foreign currency fluctuations.
Learn more about Demand:
brainly.com/question/1245771
#SPJ4
