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Anon25 [30]
3 years ago
9

So here is a theoretical question. Let L1 and L2 be linear transformation from a vector space V into Vector space W. Let {v1,v2,

....,vn} be a basis for V. Show that if L1(vi)=L2(vi) for i=1,2,....,n then L1(v)=L2(v) for any v in V. ...?
Mathematics
1 answer:
noname [10]3 years ago
6 0
<span>if v belongs to V, then we can find scalars a1,a2,...,an, such that v=a1*v1+a2*v2+...+an*vn, L1(v)=L1(a1*v1+a2*v2+...+an*vn) =a1*L1(v1)+a2*L1(v2)+...+an*L1(vn) =a1*L2(v1)+a2*L2(v2)+...+an*L2(vn) =L2(a1*v1+a2*v2+...+an*vn) =L2(v)</span>
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A bouncing ball reaches a height of 54 inches at its first peak, 36 inches at its second peak, and 24 inches at its third peak.
sesenic [268]

Answer:

f(x) = 54(two-thirds) Superscript x minus 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:

First peak : 36 / 54=2/3

Second peak : 24 / 36 = 2/3

The common ratio here is 2/3 ; which mean each bounce height is 2/3 of previous height

Modeling this using geometric progression :

An=a1r^(n-1)

An = nth term of a geometric progression

a1=first term

r=common ratio = 2/3

n = nth term

a1=54

Substituting into the above formular :

An=54(2/3)^(n-1)

4 0
3 years ago
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What is a triangular prism? Guy please answer this question it's me ?
IRISSAK [1]

Answer:

A prism is a polyhedron A prism is a 3-dimensional shape with two identical shapes facing each other. These identical shapes are called “bases”. The bases can be a triangle, square, rectangle or any other polygon.

Step-by-step explanation:

i hope this will help you

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3 years ago
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Determine the inverse for the function f(x)= 4x+20
LUCKY_DIMON [66]

Answer:

6.40

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
In the game of roulette, a wheel consists of 32 slots numbered 00, 0, 1, 2, . . . , 30. To play the game, a metal ball is spun a
Zarrin [17]

Answer:

(a) The sample space is {00, 0, 1, 2, . . . , 30}.

(b) If the wheel is spun 1,000 times, it is expected about 31 of those times to result in the ball landing in slot 3.

(c) If the wheel is spun 100 times, it is expected about 47 of those times to result in the ball landing in an odd number.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that in the game of roulette, a wheel consists of 32 slots numbered 00, 0, 1, 2, . . . , 30.

To play the game, a metal ball is spun around the wheel and is allowed to fall into one of the numbered slots.

(a) The sample space is {00, 0, 1, 2, . . . , 30} which means the metal ball can land on any of these numbers.

(b) As we know that there is an equal probability of the metal ball landing on any of the slots marked in the sample space.

Total number of slots = 32

Number of slots marked with 3 = 1

So, the probability that the metal ball falls into the slot marked 3 is given by =  \frac{1}{32}  = 0.031 or 3.1%

This means that if the wheel is spun 100 times, it is expected about 3.1 of those times to result in the ball landing in slot 3.

So, if the wheel is spun 1,000 times, it is expected about 31 of those times to result in the ball landing in slot 3 because (0.031 \times 1000) = 31.

(c) As we know that the odd slot in the given sample space is {1, 3, 5,......, 29}.

Total number of slots = 32

Number of odd slots = 15

So, the probability that the metal ball lands in an odd slot is given by =  \frac{15}{32}  = 0.47 or 47%.

This means that if the wheel is spun 100 times, it is expected about 47 of those times to result in the ball landing in an odd number.

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Log base 10 (10+9x) - log base 10 (11-x) =2
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The above budget I submitted into fraction

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