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Anon25 [30]
3 years ago
9

So here is a theoretical question. Let L1 and L2 be linear transformation from a vector space V into Vector space W. Let {v1,v2,

....,vn} be a basis for V. Show that if L1(vi)=L2(vi) for i=1,2,....,n then L1(v)=L2(v) for any v in V. ...?
Mathematics
1 answer:
noname [10]3 years ago
6 0
<span>if v belongs to V, then we can find scalars a1,a2,...,an, such that v=a1*v1+a2*v2+...+an*vn, L1(v)=L1(a1*v1+a2*v2+...+an*vn) =a1*L1(v1)+a2*L1(v2)+...+an*L1(vn) =a1*L2(v1)+a2*L2(v2)+...+an*L2(vn) =L2(a1*v1+a2*v2+...+an*vn) =L2(v)</span>
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[1 -4 3 5]+[-2 6 -2 4]
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Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago
27 + (8-5) -am looking for the answer of number 7
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Answer:

The answer to the equation from question 7 is 14.

Step-by-step explanation:

In question 7, we are given an equation.

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3 years ago
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3 years ago
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Ierofanga [76]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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It can be done as follows :

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So,

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5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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