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hodyreva [135]
3 years ago
13

What is the volume of a rectangular prism with a length of 14 m, height of 6

Mathematics
2 answers:
julsineya [31]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

252

Step-by-step explanation:

14 times 6 times 3=252

anyanavicka [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

252m^3

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiply all the numbers.

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Answer with workings please
icang [17]
AB = 9 cm
BC = 6cm

CD = 7 cm
AE = 6 cm

3BC = AB
3ED = AE

  AB = AE
  BC    ED
    ⁹/₃ = ⁶/ₓ
3 · 6 = 9 · x
   18 = 9x
    9      9
     2 = x

ED = 2 cm
5 0
3 years ago
last year, 639 students attended a summer camp. of those who attended this year, 0.5% also attended summer camp last year. about
lawyer [7]

Answer:

First of all, he have to find out what 0.5% of the students is.

Second of all, find out what 0.5 of 100 is. 100 divided by 0.5 is 200.

Third of all, divide 200 from 639. This equals 3.195

Since it is asking about how many, I would go with about 3. After all, you can't have have half of a person, so the decimals shouldn't be added.

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Write the number shown in standard notation. 1.02 x 10 First Correct answer gets Brainliest
SIZIF [17.4K]

Answer:

1.02×10¹ = 10.2

Step-by-step explanation:

We have given a number in scientific notation as follows 1.02×10¹

We need to convert it into standard notation.

1 is in ones place, 0 is in tenths place and 2 is in hundredths place.

1.02\times 10^1=\dfrac{102}{100}\times 10\\\\=\dfrac{102}{10}\\\\=10.2

So, the standard notation of 1.02×10¹ is 10.2

7 0
3 years ago
if a scatter plot has no association then... A.) it has no ordered psirs B.) its ordered pairs have no predictable pattern C.) i
musickatia [10]

Answer:

If a scatter plot has no association then it's ordered pairs have no predictable pattern.  

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
BRAINLIEST!!
tekilochka [14]

Answer:

\frac{1}{20}

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we need to look at the # of chips. There are a total of 25, 6 of which are blue.

This means that the chance of getting the first blue chip would be \frac{6}{25}

As there is no replacement, the total number of chips is 24 and there are only 5 blue left. This gives us the chance of \frac{5}{24}

Now all we need to do is mulitply these two and then simplify

\frac{6}{25} *\frac{5}{24} =\frac{30}{600} =\frac{1}{20}

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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