Alladin because it’s a name
The first one and the third one are correct. because for the when you plug 1 on the first piece wise function you get 3.
f(3) =1. and f(1)=3 so f(1)>f(3)
Answer: The given logical equivalence is proved below.
Step-by-step explanation: We are given to use truth tables to show the following logical equivalence :
P ⇔ Q ≡ (∼P ∨ Q)∧(∼Q ∨ P)
We know that
two compound propositions are said to be logically equivalent if they have same corresponding truth values in the truth table.
The truth table is as follows :
P Q ∼P ∼Q P⇔ Q ∼P ∨ Q ∼Q ∨ P (∼P ∨ Q)∧(∼Q ∨ P)
T T F F T T T T
T F F T F F T F
F T T F F T F F
F F T T T T T T
Since the corresponding truth vales for P ⇔ Q and (∼P ∨ Q)∧(∼Q ∨ P) are same, so the given propositions are logically equivalent.
Thus, P ⇔ Q ≡ (∼P ∨ Q)∧(∼Q ∨ P).
Answer:
0.13832
Step-by-step explanation:
I think so if it is so please mark me as brainliest
First you do what is inside the parentheses. 10 x 5 - 3. 50 - 3 =47. Then you multiply 47 x 5 = 235.
