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Answer:
.
Step-by-step explanation:
On a cartesian plane, the -intercept of a function is the point where the graph of that function intersects with the
-axis.
The -axis of a cartesian plane is the same as the equation
(that is, the collection of all points with an
-coordinate of
.)
Construct a system of two equations, with one equation representing -axis and
to represent the graph of this function:
.
Solve this system for and for
. If a solution exists, then the
-axis and the graph of
would indeed intersect. The point
would be the intersection of the
-axis and the graph of
.
Substitute the second equation of the system into the first.
.
Hence, the intersection of the -axis and the graph of
would be
. By definition, this point would be the
-intercept of
.
According to the probabilities given, it is found that the correct option regarding the independence of the events is given by:
No, P(carry cash) != P(carry cash|have children).
<h3>What is the probability of independent events?</h3>If two events, A and B, are independent, we have that:
Which also means that:
In this problem, we have that:
- 62% carry cash on a regular basis, hence P(cash) = 0.62.
- 46% has children, hence P(children) = 0.46.
- Of the 46% who have children, 85% carry cash on a regular basis, hence P(cash|children) = 0.85.
Since P(carry cash) != P(carry cash|have children), they are not independent.
More can be learned about the probability of independent events at brainly.com/question/25715148