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mrs_skeptik [129]
3 years ago
8

In this lesson, you learned all about the economic development of foreign countries, including the many obstacles those nations

face. For today’s discussion, free write on the idea of economic development in foreign nations. Why have some nations been able to prosper while others remain very poor? What role should the United States play?
Your response should be about one or two well-developed paragraphs on this topic.
Business
1 answer:
crimeas [40]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Please see explanations below.

Explanation:

Economic development is the improvement in the standard,well being or quality of living of a country's citizen. It is an improvement to economic growth, which is the ability of a country to produce goods and services in large quantities over a period of time.

Most developed nations do not become developed overnight. These developments are as a result of long term plan and having focused leaders. When a country puts into perspective sound macro economic policies such as investment in critical infrastructure, encourage export , investment in and promotion of selected industries, universal primary and basic secondary education, investment in agriculture etc. All these are long term planning which most prosperous nations invested in.

Having a focused leader is also important for a Nation to prosper. When a country has a leader who is focused, then he would have vision for developing his country and work towards the fulfilment.

On the other hand, most nations remain poor due to so many reasons. Financial misappropriation, which is common among poorer nations especially in Africa. People misuse public funds which are meant to to provide infrastructure, healthcare; heavy taxation,etc. There is also lack of education. Unqualified people are employed in a position meant for those who are qualified.

The role of United States have always been ; proving funding for infrastructure development, health care facilities, education, military training, etc. Such roles should be sustained in these poorer nations and improved upon subsequently.

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Answer: Air travel is a normal good and vacation travel by car is an inferior good

Explanation: What is a normal good and what is an inferior good.

Normal goods are those goods for which the demand rises as consumer income rises. While inferior goods are goods whose demand increases when consumer income decreases.

This therefore means that the demand of inferior goods is inversely related to the income of the consumer.

From the question above, we can say that car trips are inferior goods while the air travel are normal goods.

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3 years ago
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The option of sticking with the current business lineup makes sense when
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Answer:

The correct answer is the option A: the company's present business offer attractive growth opportunities and can be counted on to create economic value for shareholders.

Explanation:

To begin with, the fact that a company faces the dilemma between continue with the current business lineup or change it in order to begin producing a new one by starting from zero then a lot of variables must be taken care of and considered, that is, that at the moment of making the final decision the managers must understand the opportunity costs that can affect the organization and moreover the benefits that the actual lineup makes. That is why, that at the time of sticking with the current business lineup it makes sense to continue with the current one when the company's present business offer attractive growth opportunities and can be counted on to create economic value for shareholders.

8 0
3 years ago
Kaspar Corporation makes a commercial-grade cooking griddle. The following information is available for Kaspar Corporation's ant
Leto [7]

Answer:

Total cost per unit is $77

Explanation:

Fixed manufacturing overhead per unit = Total fixed manufacturing overhead ÷ Number of units

= $478,800 ÷ 34,200 = $14 per unit

Fixed selling and administrative expenses per unit = Total Fixed selling and administrative expenses ÷ Number of units

= $171,000 ÷ 34,200 = $5 per unit.

Total cost per unit = Direct material + Direct labor + Variable manufacturing overhead + Fixed manufacturing overhead + Variable selling expenses + Fixed selling expenses

Total cost per unit = $15 + $5 + $11 + $14 + $5 + $5 = $55 per unit.

Markup = 40% of total cost = $55 × 40% = $22

Therefore, total selling price per unit = Cost per unit + Markup

= $55 + $22 = $77 per unit.

7 0
3 years ago
Lillian sees a store sign that says cl_ ed. due to the gestalt law of _______, lillian knows the store is closed even though the
Jobisdone [24]
<span>This is the gestalt law of closure. Gestalt means a whole comprised from many pieces that takes on a meaning larger than itself. This refers to Lilian's process of assembling the word- it is composed from letters, but takes on an independent meaning. The law of closure is when this happens anyway even when we don't have all the information.</span>
4 0
3 years ago
Babcock Company purchased a piece of machinery for $36,000 on January 1, 2019, and has been depreciating the machine using the s
pogonyaev

Answer:

<u>Requirement 1:</u>

Dr Accumulated Depreciation $9,600

Cr Retained Earnings  Account      $9,600

<u>Requirement 2:</u>

Dr Depreciation Expense $6,000

Cr Accumulated Depreciation $6,000

Explanation:

Year  Remaining Life of machine  Depreciation fraction

1                               5                                           5/15

2                              4                                           4/15

3                              3                                           3/15

4                              2                                           2/15

5                          <u>    1     </u>                                       1/15

Total                       15  

Now here, the depreciation formula is as under:

Depreciation expense = (Cost - Salvage Value) * Fraction value

<u>Year 2019:</u>

The sum of years digit fraction would be 5/15 and the cost of the machinery is $36,000. So

Depreciation Expense = ($36,000 - 0) * 5/15  = $12,000

<u>Year 2020:</u>

The sum of years digit fraction would be 5/15 and the cost of the machinery is $36,000. So

Depreciation Expense = ($36,000 - 0) * 4/15  = $9,600

<u>Year 2021:</u>

Now in this year the there is change in estimate and a switch in the use of the depreciation method, which is now straight line method. The change in estimate only includes the useful life of the asset which is 6 years from the date of purchase.

So for straight-line depreciation:

Depreciation Expense = (Cost - Salvage Value)  / Useful Life

By simply putting values, we have:

Depreciation Expense = $36,000 / 6 years = $6,000 per year

So this means, according to change in accounting policy, the excess depreciation charged must be eliminated from the previous years. The depreciation charge for the previous 2 years must be $12,000 and the excess depreciation charge is calculated as under:

Carrying value of the asset = $21,600 - $12,000  = $9,600

<u>Requirement 1:</u>

The double entry according to the US GAAP, for the excess depreciation charge in the previous years would be the waiving off of retained earnings with the excess depreciation amount calculated above.

Dr Accumulated Depreciation $9,600

Cr Retained Earnings  Account      $9,600

<u></u>

<u>Requirement 2:</u>

The depreciation expense for the year 2021, would be recorded as under:

Dr Depreciation Expense $6,000

Cr Accumulated Depreciation $6,000

3 0
3 years ago
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