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ahrayia [7]
3 years ago
12

Masters Corp. issues two bonds with 20-year maturities. Both bonds are callable at $1,050. The first bond is issued at a deep di

scount with a coupon rate of 4% and a price of $580 to yield 8.4%. The second bond is issued at par value with a coupon rate of 8.75%.
a. What is the yield to maturity of the par bond? Why is it higher than the yield of the discount bond?
b. If you expect rates to fall substantially in the next two years, which bond has the higher expected rate of return?
c. In what sense does the discount bond offer "implicit call protection"?
Business
1 answer:
I am Lyosha [343]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Explanation:

a)

The YTM of the bond at par value is equals to its coupon rate, 8.75%. Other things being equal, this 4% coupon rate bond will be more eye-catching as the coupon rate is lower than the current market yields, and its price is far below the call price. So, if yields drop, capital gains on the bond will not be restricted by the call price.

b)

If an investor foresees that yields will fall considerably, the 4% bond proposes a better expected return.

c)

Implicit call protection is offered in the sense that any likely fall in yields would not be nearly enough to make the firm consider calling the bond. In this sense, the call feature is almost irrelevant

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6 0
2 years ago
Net Zero Products, a wholesaler of sustainable raw materials. Prepared the following aging of receivables analysis.
kkurt [141]

Answer:

Net Zero Products

a) The balance of the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts using the aging of accounts receivable method is $4,300.

b) Adjusting Entry to record bad debt expense:

Debit Bad Debt Expense $1,700

Credit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $1,700

To record the bad debt expense for the period and bring the allowance to $4,300 credit balance.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Aging of receivables analysis:

Total (days)                          0        1 to 30     31 to 60     61 to 90     above 90

Accounts receivable $171,000   $96,000   $34,000     $15,000     $12,000

Percent uncollectible                      1%            4%                 6%            9%

Allowance for doubtful     0          $960        $1,360         $900        $1,080

Total allowance for doubtful = $4,300 (960 + 1,360 + 900 + 1,080)

b) The adjustment in the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts needed for the current period is $1,700 ($4,300 - $2,600).  This amount will be debited to the Bad Debts Expense account and credited to the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts.  It will bring the total for the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts to $4,300 from $2,600.

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3 years ago
Please list all technical and software knowledge and skills:
MAVERICK [17]
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4 0
3 years ago
During the year, Kim sold the following assets: business auto for a $1,000 loss, stock investment for a $1,000 loss, and pleasur
Anton [14]

Answer:

c. $2,000

Explanation:

total loss claim = business auto loss + stock investment loss

                         = $1,000 + $1,000

                         = $2,000

Therefore, The Kim may claim $2,000 of these losses.

3 0
3 years ago
Why are adjusting entries necessary?
qwelly [4]

Answer:

Option A) To record revenues and expenses

Explanation:

The accounting accrual is an accounting method, it means that the company must record the revenues and expenses in the moment that the transactions occur and not when the payment is done.

By this method is always necessary to make adjustment entries to the accounting system if not it's impossible reflect all the transactions occured at this moment.

3 0
2 years ago
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