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r-ruslan [8.4K]
2 years ago
5

If a lender wants to yield 5% on a 4.25% fixed rate loan, then what fees should the lender charge?

Business
1 answer:
vodka [1.7K]2 years ago
7 0

The fee that the lender should charge to ensure they get a yield of 5% on a fixed 4.25% loan is <u>0.75%</u>.

<h3>What is the lender's yield?</h3>

The lender's yield is the implicit interest rate charged to the borrower. The lender's yield can also be described as the internal rate of return for the lender, given the loan's discounted cash flows. The lender's yield is usually annualized, it is quoted as a rate per year.

Thus, for the lender to enjoy a yield of 5% on a 4.25% fixed-rate loan, the lender's fees should include at least <u>0.75%</u> (5% - 4.25%).

Learn more about the lender's yield at brainly.com/answer expert verified here: brainly.com/question/9028806

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Consider Larry's decision to go to college. If he goes to college, he will spend a total of $120,000 on tuition, $30,000 on room
True [87]

Answer:

d. $245,500

Explanation:

The cost of Larry's decision to go to college is the sum of all the costs related to attending college plus the benefits he will lose by not choosing the alternative that is working in a store for four years.

$120,000+$30,000+ $3,500+(($30,000-$7,000)*4)

$153,500+(23,000*4)

$153,500+$92,000= $245,500

Larry's cost of going to college is $245,500.

8 0
3 years ago
A borrower who takes out a loan usually has better information about the potential returns and risk of the investment projects h
Alexandra [31]

Answer:

a) asymmertric information

Explanation:

Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that this inequality of information is called Asymmetric information. Like mentioned int he question this term refers to when one party of a contract or business transaction has greater material knowledge regarding the transaction than the opposite party. Such as knowing the potential returns and risk of the investment projects when borrowing money.

** answer A is not inasymmetric but asymmetric**

6 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
On January 1, 2016, Learned, Inc., issued $70 million face amount of 20-year, 14% stated rate bonds when market interest rates w
Fudgin [204]

Answer:

A) $61,654,600

B) June 30, 2016, first coupon payment

Dr Interest expense 4,840,000

Dr Premium on bonds payable 60,000

    Cr Cash 4,900,000

C) If you use the effective interest rate, the bond premium is higher, so the actual interest expense would be lower:

June 30, 2016, first coupon payment

Dr Interest expense 4,756,406

Dr Premium on bonds payable 143,594

    Cr Cash 4,900,000

D) The actual difference between the coupon rate and the effective interest rate (with a $72,400,000 issue price) = 14% (coupon rate) - 13.93% = 0.07%.

The bond's issue price is generally determined by the market rate, but sometimes a company might believe that the interest rate applicable to them is actually different. A company might under estimate the riskiness of their operations, but the market doesn't. Generally the market rate is correct. So any variation in the coupon rate is due to a mistake by the firm. Usually companies do not make huge mistakes, if they miss on the coupon rate it generally is not significant.

Explanation:

issued $70 million face amount of 20-year, 14% stated rate bonds when market interest rates were 16%. The bonds pay interest semi-annually each June 30 and December 31, each coupon = $4,900,000

bonds market price = PV of maturity value + PV of coupons

  • PV of maturity value = $70,000,000 x 0.04603 = $3,222,100
  • PV of coupons = $4,900,000 x (8% annuity, 40 periods) = $4,900,000 x 11.925 = $58,432,500
  • total issue price = $61,654,600

if instead the issue price was $72,400,000 (resulting in a $2,400,000 premium), then the premium would be amortized by $2,400,000 / 40 = $60,000 during each coupon payment

if the effective interest method, (not the compound interest method), was used to amortize bond premium, then we first need to calculate the effective interest rate:

$72,400,000 - $70,000,000 = $2,400,000 / 40 = $60,000

$4,900,000 + $60,000 = $4,960,000 / {($72,400,000 + $70,000,000) / 2} = 0.0696629

bond premium discount using effective interest rate = ($72,400,000 x 0.0696629) - $4,900,000 = $5,043,594 - $4,900,000 = $143,594

7 0
3 years ago
The future value of $200,000 invested at a 7% annual rate, compounded quarterly for 3 years is _____. (Do not round your interme
Lyrx [107]

Answer:

$246,287.86

Explanation:

The formula for calculating future value:

FV = P (1 + r)^n

FV = Future value  

P = Present value  

R = interest rate = 7/4 = 1.75%

N = number of years = 4 x 3 = 12

$200,000( 1.0175)^12 = $246,287.86

6 0
3 years ago
A disadvantage of using the range as a measure of variability is that
notka56 [123]

Answer:

The disadvantage of using range is:

Explanation:

It not measure the spread of the majority of values in a data set (only measures the spread between highest and lowest values).

8 0
3 years ago
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