1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
uranmaximum [27]
2 years ago
6

Why did Mexico offer land in Texas to settlers from the United States? *

History
1 answer:
vodomira [7]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Option: Texas had few settlers to develop the land and protect against Native Americans.        

Explanation:  

After Mexico won its independence in 1821, they began to urged Americans to settle in their territory of Texas. Texas thinly settled by fewer Mexican farmers and ranchers. The Mexican government invited the development of the lands in Texas by the American because the vast area was empty. Indian raids by the Comanche and Apache were a dangerous matter in Texas. It was becoming difficult for Mexican settlers defending their cattle and horses. Mexico believed settlements from the United States would help stop the raids in the region.

You might be interested in
Who had overwhelming support from the Legislative branch during the 1946 Governors controversy and later became the undisputed G
avanturin [10]

Answer:

idk

Explanation:idk

5 0
3 years ago
Which African leader was known for establishing a trade relationship with Portugal?. A.Mutota. B.Sundiata. C.Mansa Musa. D.Ewuar
maria [59]

King Ewuare developed a trade relationship with Portugal, trading slaves, cotton, and ivory.

4 0
2 years ago
What does a country need in order to<br> successfully achieve industrialization?
Hoochie [10]

Answer:

A country needs creative freedom, natural resources, labor force, government policies, and transportation.

5 0
2 years ago
which option describes a pull factor that influenced European immigration to the United States 1. land scarcity 2. industrial jo
goldenfox [79]
The answer is 82 bc yea
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Women in the British colonies were not allowed to
grigory [225]

Answer:

A, vote or anticipate in government.

Explanation:

They were not allowed to vote and lost most control of their property (if they had any to begin with) in marriage. They could not divorce, and even single women could not make contracts, sue anyone, or be sued, at least until the late 18th century.

6 0
2 years ago
Other questions:
  • Describe the kinds of propaganda used in reporting about the boston massacre
    13·1 answer
  • The Roosevelt administration used this economic strategy to convert from a peacetime economy to a wartime economy.
    9·2 answers
  • Which best describes the images that Michelangelo painted on the ceiling of the Sistine Chapel?
    15·2 answers
  • What reasons did average Americans of the late 1800s have to approve of the railroad companies, and what reasons did they have t
    7·1 answer
  • What were the purposes of the espionage and sedition acts?
    9·1 answer
  • The rights guaranteed in the constitution
    13·1 answer
  • Explain the changes that occurred in England from 1820 to 1920.
    8·1 answer
  • Where do most rivers on the east side of Australia begin?
    9·1 answer
  • What was the reaction to the government adding Sliver as a standard in 1890?
    8·2 answers
  • During the indutrial revolution , life was relatively____
    14·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!