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Lady_Fox [76]
3 years ago
9

Why do we think 0! = 1?

Mathematics
1 answer:
garri49 [273]3 years ago
4 0

4!=4\times3\times2\times1=24\\3!=3\times2\times1=6\\2!=2\times1\\1!=1\\0!=?

Notice that when we go from 4! to 3! , we divide by 4.

(Because 4!\div 4 = 4\times3\times2\times1\div4=3\times2\times1=3!  <em>the 4's cancel</em>)

And when we go from 3! to 2! , we divide by 3, and etc.

We can use this pattern to see why 0! = 1.

4!=4\times3\times2\times1=24\\3! = 4!\div4=24\div4=6\\2!=3!\div3=6\div3=2\\1!=2!\div2=2\div2=1\\0!=1!\div1=1\div1=1

And so by following the pattern, we determine that 0! = 1

-------------------------------

Note:

There are no factorials of negative numbers, and we can use the pattern to show why:

0!=1\\-1!=0!\div0=1\div0=???!!??!?

You can't divide a number by 0, therefore -1! doesn't exist, so -2! doesn't exist and so on. So you can't do the factorial of any negative number.

(Or at least there no real solutions to negative factorials)

------------------------

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(b) The value of fₓ (10.5) is 0.50.

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(a)

Compute the value of fₓ (9.5) as follows:

For delivery time 9.5, only Alice can do the delivery because Bob delivers the mail in the time interval 10 to 12.

The value of fₓ (9.5) is:

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Thus, the value of fₓ (9.5) is 0.125.

(b)

Compute the value of fₓ (10.5) as follows:

For delivery time 10.5, both Alice and Bob can do the delivery because Alice's delivery time is in the interval 9 to 11 and that of Bob's is in the time interval 10 to 12.

The value of fₓ (10.5) is:

f_{X}(10.5)=p.f(X_{A})+q.f(X_B})\\=(\frac{1}{4}\times \frac{1}{2})+(\frac{3}{4}\times\frac{1}{2})\\=\frac{1}{8}+\frac{3}{8}\\=0.50

Thus, the value of fₓ (10.5) is 0.50.

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