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Lady_Fox [76]
3 years ago
9

Why do we think 0! = 1?

Mathematics
1 answer:
garri49 [273]3 years ago
4 0

4!=4\times3\times2\times1=24\\3!=3\times2\times1=6\\2!=2\times1\\1!=1\\0!=?

Notice that when we go from 4! to 3! , we divide by 4.

(Because 4!\div 4 = 4\times3\times2\times1\div4=3\times2\times1=3!  <em>the 4's cancel</em>)

And when we go from 3! to 2! , we divide by 3, and etc.

We can use this pattern to see why 0! = 1.

4!=4\times3\times2\times1=24\\3! = 4!\div4=24\div4=6\\2!=3!\div3=6\div3=2\\1!=2!\div2=2\div2=1\\0!=1!\div1=1\div1=1

And so by following the pattern, we determine that 0! = 1

-------------------------------

Note:

There are no factorials of negative numbers, and we can use the pattern to show why:

0!=1\\-1!=0!\div0=1\div0=???!!??!?

You can't divide a number by 0, therefore -1! doesn't exist, so -2! doesn't exist and so on. So you can't do the factorial of any negative number.

(Or at least there no real solutions to negative factorials)

------------------------

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Consider the accompanying data on flexural strength (MPa) for concrete beams of a certain type.
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Step-by-step explanation:

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Data on flexural strength(MPa) for concrete beams of a certain type:

11.8, 7.7, 6.5, 6.8, 9.7, 6.8, 7.3, 7.9, 9.7, 8.7, 8.1, 8.5, 6.3, 7.0, 7.3, 7.4, 5.3, 9.0, 8.1, 11.3, 6.3, 7.2, 7.7, 7.8, 11.6, 10.7, 7.0

a) Point estimate of the mean value of strength for the conceptual population of all beams manufactured

We use the sample mean, \bar{x} as the point estimate for population mean.

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