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Delvig [45]
3 years ago
7

Which of the following is equal to 142 ÷ 2? A. (100 ÷ 40) + (40 ÷ 2) + (2 ÷ 2) B. (100 + 2) ÷ (40 + 2) ÷ (2 + 2) C. (100 ÷ 2) -

(40 ÷ 2) - (2 ÷ 2) D. (100 ÷ 2) + (40 ÷ 2) + (2 ÷ 2)
Mathematics
2 answers:
LiRa [457]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

142 ÷ 2 = 71

D. ( 100÷2) + (40÷2) + (2÷2)

50 + 20 + 1

71

finlep [7]3 years ago
8 0

The answer is D. Firstly you divide 100 by 2 giving you 50 you add it with 40 divide by 2 which is 70 and 2 divided by 2 is 1 add 1 plus 70 you get 71. 142 divided by 2 is 71. There you go

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Step-by-step explanation:

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8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is 1×1,000+3×10,000+9×1,000+8×100+5×10+2×1
xenn [34]
Use PEMDAS for this problem.
1 x 1000=   + 1000
3 x 10,000= 30,000
---------------------------
                 + 31000
                       9000
---------------------------
                 + 40000
                         800
--------------------------
                    + 40800
                              50
------------------------------
                       + 40850
                                  2
------------------------------
             Answer: 40,852

Hoped this helped.

~Bob Ross ®
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4 years ago
When diving an algebraic fraction do you always have to flip one of the fractions when multipling?
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