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Katyanochek1 [597]
3 years ago
12

Answer correct for brainliest!

Mathematics
1 answer:
sleet_krkn [62]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation y =1, means that y is one for any value of x.  Therefore you will get a straight horizontal line that goes through (-1,1) (0,1), (1,1), (2, 1) etc..   It will be parallel to the y-axis, but one unit up, as I have tried to illustrate below:

 

 

                           ^

                            |

                            |

                            |                y = 1

<------------------------------------------>

                            |                    x-axis

<---------------------------------------------->                

                            |              

                            |

                            |

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On Thursday, the high temperature was 60 degrees Fahrenheit. On Friday, the high was 72 degrees Fahrenheit
disa [49]

Answer: 120 percent increase

Step-by-step explanation:

72/60 = 1.2

1.2 times is also 120 percent

3 0
3 years ago
TJ earns a 20% commission on all sales plus a base salary of $40,000. His total income last year was more than $70,000. Which in
sukhopar [10]

Answer:

40,000 + 0.2x ≥ 70,000


3 0
3 years ago
Does anyanyone know
Ksju [112]

Answer:

7x² + 4x + 32

Step-by-step explanation:

   13x²  + 7x +21

<u>-    6x² + 3x - 11        </u>

    7x²  +4x + 32

8 0
3 years ago
Eunice wanted to save up for a mountain bike that costs £250. She baby-sits each week for 6 hours for £2.75 an hour, and does a
choli [55]

Answer:

Approximately 2 weeks

Step-by-step explanation:

Given data

Cost of bike=  £250

<em>Assuming she works for 6 days</em>

1.Babysitting

6*2.75=£16.5 per day

for 6 days

=16.5*6

=£99

2. Saturday Job

=£27.50

Total earnings for the week

=£27.50+£99

=£126.5 weekly

Hence it will take her

=250/126.5

=1.97 week

Approximately 2 weeks to save up the amount

3 0
3 years ago
OK so I need to know what 96÷6 is and I know it is 16 but I need to know how to do it in long division can anyone help me
algol13

Answer:

   16

 ____________

6| 96

  -6 |

       V

    36

  - 36

     0

6 goes into 9 one time because 9-6=3 so there is 1 six in 9. Write 1 at the top because you have 1 6.

Subtract the 6 and you get 3

Bring the 6 from 96 down

you get 36

6 goes into 36 6 times because 36-6-6-6-6-6-6=0 so write a 6 at the top and you get 16 because of the previous 1.

Subtract 36 by 36 to get 0

Hope this helps

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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