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Pepsi [2]
3 years ago
12

Pacific Cruise Lines is a defendant in litigation involving a swimming accident on one of its three cruise ships.1. The likeliho

od of a payment occurring is probable, and the estimated amount is $1.14 million. 2. The likelihood of a payment occurring is probable, and the amount is estimated to be in the range of $0.94 to $1.14 million. 3. The likelihood of a payment occurring is reasonably possible, and the estimated amount is $1.14 million. 4. The likelihood of a payment occurring is remote, while the estimated potential amount is $1.14 million. Record the necessary entry for the scenarios given above.
Business
1 answer:
Setler [38]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

1. The likelihood of a payment occurring is probable, and the estimated amount is $1.14 million.

  • Dr Law suit loss 1,140,000
  •     Cr Law suit liability 1,140,000

2. The likelihood of a payment occurring is probable, and the amount is estimated to be in the range of $0.94 to $1.14 million.

  • Dr Law suit loss 940,000
  •     Cr Law suit liability 940,000

US GAAP allows companies to record probable losses at lowest estimated value.

3. The likelihood of a payment occurring is reasonably possible, and the estimated amount is $1.14 million.

  • no journal entry is required, only a disclosure in the footnotes of the financial statements.

A contingent liability (or loss) that is only possible, but not probable, does not need to be journalized and recorded. It only needs to be disclosed in the footnotes of the financial statements.

4. The likelihood of a payment occurring is remote, while the estimated potential amount is $1.14 million.

  • no journal entry is required

A contingent liability (or loss) that is remote, does not need to be journalized or recorded, nor included in the footnotes of the financial statements.

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By definition, empirical probability is equal to:
lidiya [134]

By definition, empirical probability is equal to C. Number of successful trials/Total number of trials.

<h3>What is an empirical probability?</h3>

It should be noted that empirical probability simply means a experimental probability that is based on historical data.

In this case, by definition, empirical probability is equal to the number of successful trials divided by the total number of trials.

Learn more about empirical probability on:

brainly.com/question/16972278

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7 0
2 years ago
"Whenever Andrew considers upgrading his personal computer system, he consults with Jeremy, a knowledgeable friend who always ha
maksim [4K]

Answer: innovator

Explanation:

From the question, we are informed that whenever Andrew considers upgrading his personal computer system, he normally consults with Jeremy, a knowledgeable friend who always has the newest technology.

Regarding the question, Jeremy is an innovator. An innovator is someone who has embraced new ideas and is always trying out new gadgets and technology.

8 0
3 years ago
According to the price equation, the actual price is the list price less blank______, plus extra fees.
Blizzard [7]

Answer:

incentives and allowances

Explanation:

According to the price equation, the actual price is the list price less blank incentives and allowances, plus extra fees.

8 0
2 years ago
In a newsvendor model where the demand has normal distribution, if Co &lt; Cu, i.e., the overage cost is lower than the underage
mars1129 [50]

Answer:

maximum

Explanation:

The newsvendor model may be defined as the mathematical model which is characterize by the fixed prices as well as the uncertain demand for the perishable products. This model is mainly used to determine the optimal inventory level.

According to the newsvendor model, there is only one opportunity to order. The cost of buying large quantities of the products may result in disposing them or selling the products at a lower price.

The optimal ordering quantity is maximum when the underage cost is higher than the overage cost.

8 0
2 years ago
Suppose there is a simple one good economy that only produces spinning rims. In 2015, the economy was able to produce 1 million
Alex_Xolod [135]

Answer: 0

Explanation:

Firstly, we will calculate the nominal value in 2015 which will be:

= $500 x 1 million

= $500 million

The nominal value in 2016 will be:

= $1000 x 1 million

= $1 billion

Real GDP will be the price of the base year multiplied by the quantity of the current year which will be:

= $500 million x 1 million sets

= $500 million

Therefore, the increase in real GDP is zero.

4 0
3 years ago
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