A banker's acceptance is the payment guaranteed by a bank for a time draft that is payable to a seller of the goods.
A banker's acceptance is a short-term investment plan that is created by a company or firm with a guarantee from a bank. It is important that the company or firm is a non-financial firm. It is a guarantee that the bank gives that a buyer will pay the seller the amount at a future date. A good rating is a prerequisite for obtaining the banker's acceptance.
This is very useful, especially during foreign trade. During foreign trade, the creditworthiness of the importer is not known. The period of the banker's acceptance is usually lesser than 180 days. These acceptances are traded at discounts from the face value in the secondary markets. So, the banker's acceptance acts as a negotiable time draft.
This guarantee from the bank is a written promise by the bank to the seller to pay the sum specified if the buyer is not able to do so. This promise is backed by the bank so the seller feels confident in exporting his goods. As it is safe and liquid, the return on the banker's acceptance is low.
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Answer:
False
Explanation:
The reason is that the betas are calculated using the past data which means that the Capital asset pricing model solely rely on the past data which is not the strength of the CAPM. It is basically a weakness of the model so the statement is incorrect.
Paying off the full balance.
As a guidelines, your Credit Card APR will be increased if you are responsible in paying all your credit and show that you are a good user.
Answer:
A.
Explanation:
Based on the answers provided it can be said that in this scenario statement "A" is true, The employee is prohibited from selling the U.S. Government bonds unless he is registered as an agent in that State. Any agent trying to sell a security in that State, needs to be registered or fall under an exemption provided from registration, and since no exemption is provided to agents of broker-dealers that offer U.S. Government securities he needs to be registered.
Answer:
a. You would expect the yields to rise due to increased default risk.
c. You would expect the yields to rise to compensate investors for the loss of the tax-exempt status.
Explanation:
The foreign government is threatened with bankruptcy which means that the government might be unable to pay their bond obligations. This means that the risk of default has now increased and so yields will rise as a result of this.
Tax exempt bonds like Municipal bonds generally have lower yields because of their tax savings. If the Government was to impose taxes on previously tax exempt bonds, people would be getting less and so would have to be compensated for this loss by increased yields.
