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VLD [36.1K]
3 years ago
7

4(x + 2) = 4x + 2 Are these two Equivalent

Mathematics
2 answers:
Arlecino [84]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

no they're not

Step-by-step explanation:

4(x+2) = 4x +8

4x+2= 4x+2

Ilya [14]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

No they are not equivalent

First we would have to solve 4(x+2)

In order to solve this we need to multiply. So 4×X is equal to 4x. 4×2=8 Therefore when solving Its 4x+8..and 4x+8 is not equivalent to 4x+2

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Using the z-distribution, it is found that the 90% confidence interval is given by: (0.6350, 0.6984).

<h3>What is a confidence interval of proportions?</h3>

A confidence interval of proportions is given by:

\pi \pm z\sqrt{\frac{\pi(1-\pi)}{n}}

In which:

  • \pi is the sample proportion.
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In this problem, we have a 90% confidence level, hence\alpha = 0.9, z is the value of Z that has a p-value of \frac{1+0.9}{2} = 0.95, so the critical value is z = 1.645.

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Hence, the bounds of the interval are given by:

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The 90% confidence interval is given by: (0.6350, 0.6984).

More can be learned about the z-distribution at brainly.com/question/25890103

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Step-by-step explanation:

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