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Goryan [66]
3 years ago
11

15-10 A firm has 60,000 shares whose current price is $45.90. Those stockholders expect a return of 14%. The firm has a 3-year l

oan of $1,900,000 at 7.3%. It has issued 22,000 bonds with a face value of 1000, 20 years left to maturity, semiannual compounding, a coupon interest rate of 7%, and a current price of $925. Using market values for debt and equity, what is the firm’s cost of capital: A) Before taxes? B) After taxes with a tax rate of 21%?
Business
1 answer:
krek1111 [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

<u><em>before taxes:</em></u>

WACC 8.74959%

<u><em>after a 21% tax-rate:</em></u>

WACC 7.23587%

Explanation:

Equity:       60,000 x $45.90 = 2,754,000

Liabilities:   1,900,000 + 22,000 x 925 = 22,250,000

Value:      25,004,000

<u>We solve for weights:</u>

Ew =    2,754,000 / 25,004,000 =  0,1101423772196449

Lw = 22,250,000 / 25,004,000 =   0,8898576227803551

Cost of debt will be the market value rate of the bond That is the rate at which the future coupon payment and maturity matches the market price of the bond

we solve this using excel goal seek:

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 35.00

time 20

rate 0.040545327

35 \times \frac{1-(1+0.0405453269606019)^{-20} }{0.0405453269606019} = PV\\

PV $473.3728

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity  $1,000.00

time  20.00

rate  0.04055

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.0405453269606019)^{20} } = PV  

PV   451.6270

PV c $473.3728

PV m  $451.6270

Total $924.9998

a semiannual rate of 0.04055 is the market rate thus, cost of debt is

0.04055 x 2 = 0.081

Now we can solve for the WACC without taxes:

WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+D})

Ke 0.14000

Equity weight 0.1101

Kd 0.081

Debt Weight 0.8899

t 0

WACC = 0.14(0.1101) + 0.081(1-0)(0.8899)

WACC 8.74959%

wiht taxes of 21%

t 0.21

WACC = 0.14(0.1101) + 0.081(1-0.21)(0.8899)

WACC 7.23587%

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On May 16, Thorne Co. declares a $0.40 dividend to be paid on April 5. Thorne has 2,060,000 shares of common stock issued and ou
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Answer:

b. Dividends and a credit to Dividends Payable for $824,000

Explanation:

Dividends payable = 2,060,000 shares * $0.40 per share = $824,000

Journal entry on February 16

Dividends                 $824,000

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2 years ago
Bose Company issued $600,000, 14 % bond on January 1
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Answer:

1) If bonds are issued as 100 entry will be

                                   Debit                                         Credit

Cash                            600,000

Bonds payable                                                              600,000

2) If bonds are issued at 95

                                     Debit                                        Credit

Cash                              570,000

Discount                          30,000

Bonds payable                                                               600,000

3) If bonds are issued at 105

Cash                               630,000

Bonds payable                                                                 600,000

Premium                                                                             30,000

4)

                                        Debit                                           Credit

Interest payable                42,000

Cash                                                                                    42,000

Explanation:

1) If the bonds are issued at 100 then the company will receive the same amount of cash as the face value so they will receive 600,000 cash and will owe the bond buyers 600,000 so they will debit 600,000 cash and credit 600,000 bonds payable.

2) If bonds are issued at 95 then the company will receive cash 95% of 600,000 which is 570,000 so they will debit 570,000 cash, 30,000 will debited as discount and 600,000 bonds payable.

3) If bonds are issued at 105 then the company will receive cash 105% of 600,000 which is 630,000 so they will debit 630,000 cash and will credit 600,000 bonds payable and 30,000 as premium.

4) The bonds are issued on January 1 and there is a journal entry of interest payment at July 1 so we assume that the bond has semi annual payments.

14% of 600,000 is 84,000 and we will divide it by 2 to find the semi annual payment which will be 42,000, so we will debit interest payable by 42,000 and credit cash by 42,000.

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Arbitrage allows for sale of goods or property at the highest asking price and valuation will most like involve in it.

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1 year ago
Beth sells candles from her website. She can get a candle from her suppliers at a cost of $3 to her. The candles have been selli
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Answer:

$10.67

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Initial cost = $3

Initial selling cost = $5

Initial sales = 4000

with $1 increase in price she loses 300 sales per month

Now,

Let the increase in price which maximizes the profit be '$x'

Therefore,

Final selling price = $5 + x

Final sales = 4000 - 300x

Thus,

Revenue = Final selling price × Final sales

= ( 5 + x)( 4000 - 300x)

= 20,000 - 1500x + 4000x - 300x²

= 20,000 + 2500x - 300x²

Total Cost = Initial cost × Final sales

= 3(4000 - 300x )

= 12,000 - 900x

Now,

Profit = Total revenue - Total cost

or

P = [ 20,000 + 2500x - 300x² ] - [ 12,000 - 900x ]

or

P = 8,000 + 3400x - 300x²

for point of maxima \frac{dP}{dx}=0

Thus,

0 = 0 + 3400 - 300(2x)

or

0 = 3400 - 600x

or

600x = 3400

or

x = \frac{17}{3}

Hence,

The price will be = $5 + x = 5 + \frac{17}{3}

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