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Goryan [66]
4 years ago
11

15-10 A firm has 60,000 shares whose current price is $45.90. Those stockholders expect a return of 14%. The firm has a 3-year l

oan of $1,900,000 at 7.3%. It has issued 22,000 bonds with a face value of 1000, 20 years left to maturity, semiannual compounding, a coupon interest rate of 7%, and a current price of $925. Using market values for debt and equity, what is the firm’s cost of capital: A) Before taxes? B) After taxes with a tax rate of 21%?
Business
1 answer:
krek1111 [17]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

<u><em>before taxes:</em></u>

WACC 8.74959%

<u><em>after a 21% tax-rate:</em></u>

WACC 7.23587%

Explanation:

Equity:       60,000 x $45.90 = 2,754,000

Liabilities:   1,900,000 + 22,000 x 925 = 22,250,000

Value:      25,004,000

<u>We solve for weights:</u>

Ew =    2,754,000 / 25,004,000 =  0,1101423772196449

Lw = 22,250,000 / 25,004,000 =   0,8898576227803551

Cost of debt will be the market value rate of the bond That is the rate at which the future coupon payment and maturity matches the market price of the bond

we solve this using excel goal seek:

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 35.00

time 20

rate 0.040545327

35 \times \frac{1-(1+0.0405453269606019)^{-20} }{0.0405453269606019} = PV\\

PV $473.3728

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity  $1,000.00

time  20.00

rate  0.04055

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.0405453269606019)^{20} } = PV  

PV   451.6270

PV c $473.3728

PV m  $451.6270

Total $924.9998

a semiannual rate of 0.04055 is the market rate thus, cost of debt is

0.04055 x 2 = 0.081

Now we can solve for the WACC without taxes:

WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+D})

Ke 0.14000

Equity weight 0.1101

Kd 0.081

Debt Weight 0.8899

t 0

WACC = 0.14(0.1101) + 0.081(1-0)(0.8899)

WACC 8.74959%

wiht taxes of 21%

t 0.21

WACC = 0.14(0.1101) + 0.081(1-0.21)(0.8899)

WACC 7.23587%

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Worldwide annual sales of a product in 2013–2017 were projected to be approximately q = −10p + 4,700 million units at a selling
OlgaM077 [116]

The revenue function is given by R = -10p² + 4700p

Revenue is the total amount of money made from selling a particular unit of products while cost is the amount of money spent in production.

Given an annual sales (q) as:

q = (−10p + 4,700) million units.

The selling price is $p per unit. Hence:

Revenue = per unit price * annual sales

Revenue = p * (−10p + 4,700)

Revenue (R) = -10p² + 4700p

The revenue function is given by R = -10p² + 4700p

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8 0
3 years ago
General Staff immediately come together and begin developing strategies. General Staff Chiefs are: Evaluating staffing and super
Lina20 [59]

Select all that apply.

Common Terminology

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Incident Action Planning

Manageable Span of Control

Unified Command

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Answer:

Management by Objectives

Incident Action Planning

Manageable Span of Control

Explanation:

Considering the information given in the question, the NIMS Management Characteristics I am supporting are:

1. Management by Objectives

This is because, by Management by Objectives, the General Staff are making strategies according to the previous objectives.

2. Incident Action Planning

This is because, by Incident Action Planning, the General Staff are revising planning documents that will comprise staffing and resource necessities.

3. Manageable Span of Control

This is because, by Manageable Span of Control, General staff chiefs are assessing staffing requirements in the Incident Command Post. This is to make sure each supervisor only has personnel that can be managed.

7 0
3 years ago
What would a central bank need to do to reverse the effects of a favorable supply shock on inflation? what would its reaction do
denis-greek [22]

A favorable supply shock is a sudden increase in supply that makes the short-run aggregate supply curve (SRAS) shift to the right, average price levels go down and real GDP also shifts to the right. In this case, average price levels go down as shown in the figure below from p1 to p2 SRAS shifts right.

This may make create deflation in an economy and discourage new producers to enter the market, to bring back inflation, the central bank may reduce interest rates and decrease the money supply in the market, and in short, will follow expansionary monetary policy. This will make people demand more and hence as aggregate demand shifts to correct average price levels may again go up. This move will create new jobs in the market as aggregate demand will increase in the short term.

A supply shock is an event that causes unexpected cost increases or production disruptions. This shifts the short-run aggregate supply curve to the left, boosting inflation and lowering real domestic production.

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6 0
2 years ago
The Carbondale Hospital is considering the purchase of a new ambulance. The decision will rest partly on the anticipated mileage
Shtirlitz [24]

Answer:

a. Year 6 Forecast = 3,775

b. Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) = 108.3

c. Year 6 Forecast = 3,780

Explanation:

Given

The miles driven during the past 5 years are as​ follows

Year 1 -- 3,100

Year 2 --- 4,050

Year 3 --- 3,450

Year 4 ---- 3,750

Year 5 --- 3,800

a. The forecast for year 6 is calculated as follows;

Using a 2 year moving average

Forecast = ½(Year 4 + Year 5)

Forecast = ½(3750 + 3800)

Forecast = ½ * 7550

Forecast = 3,775

b. Calculating the Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD), if two years moving average is used.

------------------------------2 year difference ----- Difference

Year 1 -- 3,100 ------------------------------------------

Year 2 --- 4,050 -----------------------------------------

Year 3 --- 3,450 ---- 3,575 -------- 125

Year 4 ---- 3,750 ---- 3,750 ------ 0

Year 5 --- 3,800 ----- 3,600 ------ 200

The 2-year difference column is calculated using.

Summation of previous 2 years forecast * ½

Year 1 and 2 are empty because they don't have previous 2 years.

For year 3;

2 year difference = ½ (year 1 + year 2)

= ½(3,100 + 4,050)

= ½ (7,150)

= 3,575

For year 4

2 year difference = ½ (year 2 + year 3)

= ½(4,050 + 3,750)

= ½ (7,500)

= 3,750

For year 5:

2 year difference = ½ (year 3 + year 4)

= ½(3,750 + 3,450)

= ½ (7,200)

= 3,600

Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) = (Summation of Difference)/3

Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) = (125 + 0 + 200)

Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) = 325/3

Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) = 108.3

c. for year 6 using a weighted​ 2-year moving average with weights of 0.40 and 0.60

For year 5:

Forecast = 0.4 * year 4 + 0.6 * year 5

= 0.4(3,750) + 0.6(3,800)

= 3,780

5 0
4 years ago
Production and sales estimates for June are as follows:
anastassius [24]

Answer:

Production= 13,000

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Estimated inventory (units), June 1 18,500

Desired inventory (units), June 30 19,000

Expected sales volume (units):

Area X 3,000

Area Y 4,000

Area Z 5,500

Total= 12,500

To calculate the production for the period, we need to use the following formula:

Production= sales + desired ending inventory - beginning inventory

Production= 12,500 + 19,000 - 18,500

Production= 13,000

5 0
3 years ago
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