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vlada-n [284]
3 years ago
12

Murray Plc owns​ 60% of the equity share capital of Federer Ltd. For the year ended 31 December 20X6 Federer reported profit aft

er tax of pound​200,000. During the year Federer had sold goods to Murray Plc for pound​60,000 at cost plus​ 25%. At the​ year-end 70% of these goods were unsold. What is the profit attributable to the​ non-controlling interest in the consolidated statement of comprehensive income for the year ended 31 December​ 20X6?
Business
1 answer:
KengaRu [80]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

$76,640

Explanation:

The solution of profit attributable to the​ non-controlling interest is provided below:-

Percentage of equity share capital = 100% - Equity share capital percentage

= 100% - 60%

= 40%

As we know that if profit percentage is 25% on cost so sale percentage is equals to 20%

So,

Profit on sale value = Sale percentage × Sale value

= 20% × $60,000

= $8,400

now,

Total adjust profit = Profit after tax - Unrealized profit on unsold stock

= $200,000 - $8,400

= $191,600

and, after the total adjust profit finally

Profit attributable to the​ non-controlling interest = Total adjust profit × Percentage of equity share capital

= $191,600 × 40%

= $76,640

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If bonds with a face value of $208,000 are issued at 97, the amount of cash proceeds is ____
madam [21]

Answer:

C) $201,760

Explanation:

To compute the amount of cash proceeds, we have to multiply the bonds face value with the issued price percentage.  

Since only issue price is given, so we assume it is in percentage form because the number of shares is not given in the question. So, we assume this.  

In mathematically,  

Cash proceeds = Face value × 0.97

                          = $208,000 × 0.97

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4 0
4 years ago
Tax planning Question 6 options: guides investment activities to maximize after-tax returns over the long term for an acceptable
krok68 [10]

Answer:

guides investment activities to maximize after-tax returns over the long term for an acceptable level of risk

Explanation:

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Hence, in this case, the correct answer to the question is that TAX PLANNING "guides investment activities to maximize after-tax returns over the long term for an acceptable level of risk."

8 0
3 years ago
PERT, but not CPM, has the ability to consider the precedence relationships in a project. True False
Alex787 [66]

False is the answer.

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5 0
2 years ago
A firm has net working capital of $2,715, net fixed assets of $22,407, sales of $31,350, and current liabilities of $3,908. How
babunello [35]

Answer:

So, from every $1 of total assets, $1.08 worth of sales are generated.

Explanation:

To calculate how many dollars worth of sales are generated by $1 of total assets, we use the total assets turnover ratio. It is an accounting measure that measures the efficiency of the company's assets in generating sales. It calculates the dollar values of sales generated by each $1 of total assets. The formula for total assets turnover is,

Total Assets Turnover = Sales / Average Total Assets

We already know the level of sales. We need to determine the value of total assets first.

Total Assets = Fixed assets + Current Assets

As we know that net working capital = current assets - current liabilities,

So, the current assets are,

2715 = Current assets - 3908

2715 + 3908 = Current assets

Current assets = $6623

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Total Assets Turnover = 31350 / 29030

Total assets turnover = 1.0799 rounded off to 1.08

So, from every $1 of total assets, $1.08 worth of sales are generated.

3 0
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