Answer:
"The broker-dealer or agent may only transact business in the State if registered in the State or if exempted or excluded from registration" and "Follow ups or individualized responses to persons in the State that involve either effecting or attempting to effect transactions in securities will not be made absent compliance with State registration requirements or an applicable exemption or exclusion"
Explanation:
Uniform securities act is a state level regulation of transactions in securities at the state level. It effectively prevents securities fraud and contributes to Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) function of enforcing regulation.
Registration is required when there are initial publica offerings. Registration is also required from agents such as broker dealers and investment advisers.
In this case an agent of a broker-dealer puts up a website that promotes the benefits of dollar cost averaging, including the caveat that it is suitable for investors only if they can maintain their periodic payments regardless of economic conditions and that it requires a long-term investment time horizon.
There is need for disclosure in a state where the agent is not registered. So that when clients view the website they do not violate the Uniform Securities Act.
The disclosure chosen above is sufficient to cover the agent
Answer:
Property that was sold three years ago by the debtor(A)
Explanation:
Property that was sold three years ago by the debtor : Debtor has no legal claim on the property of the bankrupt.
Community property: This is also knows as marital property. It belongs to both partners in marriage. Community property is part of the bankruptcy estate, even if only one spouse files for bankruptcy.
Property transferred in a transaction voidable by the trustee : these are transactions that trustee can prove to be voidable and recover transferred assets back to the bankrupt provided it can be proven to have been improperly transferred.
Proceeds and profits from the property of the estate : These are income realized from the estate after trustee fee has been paid and other associated expenses.
Answer: c. $22,000 increase in operating income
Explanation:
Expected decrease in revenues -$280,000
Expected decrease in total variable costs (-$200,000)
Expected decrease in fixed costs <u> (-$102,000)</u>
Expected increase(decrease) in operating income $22,000
<em>Costs are to be deducted from revenues so if the costs are decreasing, the mathematical treatment would be to add the decrease to the revenues which is how the above was calculated. </em>
Answer:
<h2>A reduction in the oil prices in United States would lead to a a larger reduction in the GDP deflator than the CPI.Hence,the correct answer in this case is option D) or a larger reduction in the GDP deflator compared to the CPI.</h2>
Explanation:
In Macroeconomics GDP deflator and Consumer Price Index(CPI) both indicates the fluctuations or variations in the overall price level of all the goods and services in the economy.However,CPI only includes the prices of goods and services that are finally consumed or purchased by the consumers or buyers in the economy and excludes the goods and services involved in any commercial,business to business or government exchange or transaction.On the other hand,GDP deflator estimates the price level of all the goods and services produced by the economy.Therefore,GDP deflator is a relatively comprehensive and broader price indicator in the economy compared to the CPI and is inclusive of all types of commercial transactions between all entities,unlike CPI.Now,in this context,oil is used both for final consumption by consumers or buyers as well as for commercial purposes or intermediate good by firms and companies for production of final goods and services.In many common instances,oil is heavily traded in the international market and is a major export commodity for most of the oil producing countries.Therefore,CPI,in this case,would only register the reduction in price of oil that has been used only for final consumption by the consumers or buyers in the economy.In contrast,GDP deflator will account for the overall reduction in price of oil that is produced by US in general which is used for all commercial,government or administrative and final consumption.Consequently, oil price reduction in US will cause a relatively higher reduction in its GDP deflator than the CPI.
Answer:
The bad debt expense amounts to $ 10,680
Explanation:
The bad debt expenses for the year 2017 is computed as:
As the percent of sakes method is used for estimating the bad debt expense. Therefore, it is computed as:
Bad debt expense = Net Credit Sales × Estimate Percent
where
Net credit sales amounts to $178,000
Estimate percent is 6%
So, putting the values above:
Bad debt expense = $178,000 × 6%
Bad debt expense = $10,680
Therefore, the bad debt expense amounts to $10,680
