Given:
value of the test statistic is t20 = 1.95
corresponding p-value of 0.0653 at the 5% significance level
No, I can't conclude that the correlation coefficient differs from zero because the p-value, which is 0.0653 exceeds 0.05.
The correlation coefficient differs from zero when the p-value is less than 0.05.
First find the slope using the slope formula M= (y2-y1) divided by (x2-x1) and then take the slope and and the 1st set of points (x1, y1) and plug it into the slope intercept formula which is y-y1=m(x-x1), then you need to add or subtract variables to correlate with the standard form formula which is ax + by = c.
Hope that helps!
Using the unit circle, you can visualise the secant as follows:
- Draw the vertical line passing trough (1,0)
- Extend the radius until it meets this line at point P
- The length of OP is the secant of your angle.
Since -90 means that the radius points downwards, it means that the radius is vertical as well, and thus it never meets the vertical line through (1,0).
Thus, the secant is not defined at -90.
In fact, if we switch back to the function notation, we can confirm this claim, since we have

which is undefined.
Answer:
no
Step-by-step explanation: