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BaLLatris [955]
2 years ago
6

Please answer correctly !!!! Will mark brainliest !!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Mathematics
2 answers:
telo118 [61]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

5 years old

Step-by-step explanation:

Kevin= k

Daniel= d

  • k=d+3
  • k-2=(d-2)*4 ⇒ k-2= 4d-8 ⇒ d+3-2 = 4d-8 ⇒ 3d=9 ⇒ d=3 ⇒ k=d+3=5
  • k=5
Pani-rosa [81]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Kevin is 6 now

Step-by-step explanation:

K= D+3

2 years ago K-2 =4 (D-2) plug in D+3 for K

D+3-2=4D-8

D+1 =4D-8 rearrange equation by subtracting D and adding 8

9 = 3D

D =3 so K =6

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Factor Completely<br><br> -m^3-2m^2-16m-32
klio [65]

Answer:

-(m+2)(m^2+16)

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
Somebody pls help me with this question pls
monitta
292in^3
3x6x10=180 because I’ve split the shape in half
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180+112=292
4 0
2 years ago
Can't​ really find the answer. Any help?
prisoha [69]

a) you need to convert one of the prices so both of them are in the same units and you can compare them.

im going to convert the Japanese Yen into Euros as the numbers will be smaller but you can also do it the other way.

£1 = 188 japanese yen

?? = 39856 japanese yen

divide 39856 by 188 to get £212

this means 39856 Japanese Yen is equal to £212

then convert this into euros.

£1 = €1.41

£212 = ???

calculate 212 × 1.41 which gives you €298.92

this means 39856 Japanese Yen is equal to €298.92

the phone in Spain costs €352.50

this shows that the phone in Spain is more expensive than the one in Japan.

therefore, the mobile phone in Japan is cheaper.

b) from Part A, we know that the phone in Japan is 39856 Japanese Yen, which is equal to £212.

so now we need to convert €352.50 into Pounds (£) to compare the prices.

£1 = €1.41

?? = €352.50

divide 352.50 by 1.41 to get £250.

this means the phone in Spain costs £250 as €352.50 is equal to £250.

now we know the phone in Japan is £212 (in pounds) whereas the phone in Spain is £250 (in pounds).

we need to calculate the difference by doing £250 - £212 which equals £38

therefore, the phone in Japan is cheaper than the phone in Spain by £38

7 0
3 years ago
The sum of three consecutive numbers is greater than 40. The inequality that represents this is x + x + 1 + x + 2 &gt; 40. Which
Brut [27]

Answer:

3x > 37

x > 12.333

Thus, 13 and 15 satisfy

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Plz Help!
Volgvan
The stack of cards are 1 inch tall all together taking up 8 inch’s (cubed)or half of the space
4 0
3 years ago
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