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IgorLugansk [536]
3 years ago
15

Sixteen of the 24 schools in Ryan's county are public schools. Ryan used this spinner to predict the probability that the winner

of the county spelling bee in each of the next four years will attend a private school. A spinner with 3 equal sections labeled A, A, B. Which set of outcomes from Ryan's simulation implies that the winner will attend a private school at least three times in that span? Select two options. A-A-A-A B-B-A-B A-B-A-B A-B-B-B B-A-B-A
Mathematics
1 answer:
Mnenie [13.5K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

BBAB

ABBB

Step-by-step explanation:

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Need help real fast please help really need it
Vladimir79 [104]

Answer:

burrito price=$8

Taco Price=$6

Step-by-step explanation:

x=burrito price

y=taco price

3x+4y=48

solve for y

y= −3 /4 x+12

plug in

6x+2y=60

6x+2( −3 /4 x+12)=60

6x+2( −3 /4 x+12)=60

x=8

now plug in for x

3x+4y=48

3(8)+4y=48

y=6

y=6

x=8

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8 0
3 years ago
HELP PLS MATH HELP ASAP CORRECT ANSWER ONLY PLS
swat32

Answer:

70

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
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If 2x/3 = 8/4, then x=
velikii [3]

Answer:

first cross multiply

2x×4=3×8

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then, divide both sides by "8" so x could be alone

x=24/8

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Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
What is the factored form of 125a^6-64
SVETLANKA909090 [29]
<span>(5a^2-4)*(25a^4+20a^2+16) is your answer</span>
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4 years ago
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Consider the following.
san4es73 [151]

Answer:

Anything in the form x = pi+k*pi, for any integer k

These are not removable discontinuities.

============================================================

Explanation:

Recall that tan(x) = sin(x)/cos(x).

The discontinuities occur whenever cos(x) is equal to zero.

Solving cos(x) = 0 will yield the locations when we have discontinuities.

This all applies to tan(x), but we want to work with tan(x/2) instead.

Simply replace x with x/2 and solve for x like so

cos(x/2) = 0

x/2 = arccos(0)

x/2 = (pi/2) + 2pi*k or x/2 = (-pi/2) + 2pi*k

x = pi + 4pi*k   or    x = -pi + 4pi*k

Where k is any integer.

If we make a table of some example k values, then we'll find that we could get the following outputs:

  • x = -3pi
  • x = -pi
  • x = pi
  • x = 3pi
  • x = 5pi

and so on. These are the odd multiples of pi.

So we can effectively condense those x equations into the single equation x = pi+k*pi

That equation is the same as x = (k+1)pi

The graph is below. It shows we have jump discontinuities. These are <u>not</u> removable discontinuities (since we're not removing a single point).

3 0
3 years ago
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