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pshichka [43]
3 years ago
15

Help with this question please!!

Mathematics
2 answers:
m_a_m_a [10]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Width = 160

Length = 110

Step-by-step explanation:

Perimeter is the sum of all the sides

They tell you that the length is 50 m shorter than the width

so L = W - 50

W = W

540 = W + W + W-50 + W-50

540 = 2W + 2(W-50)

540 = 2W + 2W - 100

540 = 4W - 100

640 = 4W

W = 160

L = 160 - 50

L = 110

grandymaker [24]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Length: 110 m

Width: 160 m

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for perimeter of a rectangle is P = 2L + 2W.

We can write the length in terms of width if width is w:

Length: w - 50

Width: w

Plug the values into the formula.

540 = 2(w - 50) + 2w

540 = 2w - 100 + 2w

540 = 4w - 100

640 = 4w

w = 160

find length by subtracting 50 from the width

160-50=110

Therefore, the length is 110 and the width is 160.

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Find the area of the polygon​
Evgesh-ka [11]

Answer:

784m^2

Step-by-step explanation:

is a rectangle with sides of 40m and 20m, in the upper right corner a right triangle has been removed with the legs of: 40 - 32 = 8m and 20 - 16 = 4m, we find the area of ​​the rectangle (b * h).

40 * 20 = 800m ^ 2, then we find the area of ​​the right triangle

1/2 b * h: 1/2 8 * 4 = 16 m ^ 2.

we remove the area of ​​the triangle from the rectangle and we have the area of ​​the figure: 800 - 16 = 784m^2

3 0
2 years ago
Required information Skip to question A die (six faces) has the number 1 painted on two of its faces, the number 2 painted on th
grigory [225]

Answer:

The change to the face 3 affects the value of P(Odd Number)

Step-by-step explanation:

Analysing the question one statement at a time.

Before the face with 3 is loaded to be twice likely to come up.

The sample space is:

S = \{1,1,2,2,2,3\}

And the probability of each is:

P(1) = \frac{n(1)}{n(s)}

P(1) = \frac{2}{6}

P(1) = \frac{1}{3}

P(2) = \frac{n(2)}{n(s)}

P(2) = \frac{3}{6}

P(2) = \frac{1}{2}

P(3) = \frac{n(3)}{n(s)}

P(3) = \frac{1}{6}

P(Odd Number) is then calculated as:

P(Odd\ Number) =  P(1) + P(3)

P(Odd\ Number) = \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{6}

Take LCM

P(Odd\ Number) = \frac{2+1}{6}

P(Odd\ Number) = \frac{3}{6}

P(Odd\ Number) =  \frac{1}{2}

After the face with 3 is loaded to be twice likely to come up.

The sample space becomes:

S = \{1,1,2,2,2,3,3\}

The probability of each is:

P(1) = \frac{n(1)}{n(s)}

P(1) = \frac{2}{7}

P(2) = \frac{n(2)}{n(s)}

P(2) = \frac{3}{7}

P(3) = \frac{n(3)}{n(s)}

P(3) = \frac{1}{7}

P(Odd\ Number) = P(1) + P(3)

P(Odd\ Number) = \frac{2}{7} + \frac{1}{7}

Take LCM

P(Odd\ Number) = \frac{2+1}{7}

P(Odd\ Number) = \frac{3}{7}

Comparing P(Odd Number) before and after

P(Odd\ Number) =  \frac{1}{2} --- Before

P(Odd\ Number) = \frac{3}{7} --- After

<em>We can conclude that the change to the face 3 affects the value of P(Odd Number)</em>

7 0
3 years ago
Big ideas math 15.3 question 14
KiRa [710]
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6 0
3 years ago
−1.75 − 22/20<br> plz hlep<br> ...and put as an exact decimal or simplified fraction
Mkey [24]

Answer:

-2.85

Step-by-step explanation:

I looked it up tbh

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A real estate agent has 12 properties that she shows. She feels that there is a 30% chance of selling any one property during a
Ronch [10]

Answer:

0.2528 = 25.28% probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are sold, or they are not. The chance of selling any one property is independent of selling another property, which means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

A real estate agent has 12 properties that she shows.

This means that n = 12

She feels that there is a 30% chance of selling any one property during a week.

This means that p = 0.3

Compute the probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

2 or less sold, which is:

P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{12,0}.(0.3)^{0}.(0.7)^{12} = 0.0138

P(X = 1) = C_{12,1}.(0.3)^{1}.(0.7)^{11} = 0.0712

P(X = 2) = C_{12,2}.(0.3)^{2}.(0.7)^{10} = 0.1678

Then

P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0.0138 + 0.0712 + 0.1678 = 0.2528

0.2528 = 25.28% probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

8 0
3 years ago
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