A map is drawn with a scale of 1 inch equal to 5 actual miles.
1 answer:
Answer:
A. 40 Miles
Step-by-step explanation:
To find the answer I'd use a proportion. To do this you would set it up like this:
Then you could either cross multiply or do it the way I'm going to explain. 1 time 8 equals 8, and when you multiply the top number you have to multiply the bottom number by the same number. So 5 time 8 equals 40. The real distance between the cities is 40 miles.
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For this case we have the following inequality:
x> -9
The solution set of this inequality is given by:
(-9, inf)
Therefore, all the points within the given interval must belong to the graph of the inequality.
Note: see attached image.
Answer:
(-9, inf)
See attached image.
x> -9
The solution set of this inequality is given by:
(-9, inf)
Therefore, all the points within the given interval must belong to the graph of the inequality.
Note: see attached image.
Answer:
(-9, inf)
See attached image.
We are given the length of AC and AB to be 20 and 6, respectively, so we can subtract 6 from 20 to find BC to be 14 cm.
The circumference of a circle is equal to
The answer is approximately 87.96 cm
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The answer is approximately 87.96 cm