Answer:
using the (pi) which is the formula
Answer:
1/26=4/104
Step-by-step explanation:
The probability of pulling a diamond if completely shuffled properly, is a 1/4. Because there are 4 suits. This is only if, there are no jokers.
And the probability of pulling a jack, is a 4/51. Because there are 4 jacks out of the 51 cards, but you already pulled out a diamond card, so you take 1 out.
Multiply them together, and you will get 4/104 = 1/26
There is a 1/26 chance of pulling out a diamond card, then a jack.
Answer:the correct answer should be d.2.07
Step-by-step explanation:
Should have the ordered pairs of
(-4,4) (-3,3) (-2,2) (-1,1) (0,0) (1,1) (2,2) (3,3).
Will look like a V when graphed. Reason being is if you take the absolute value of anything you are basically just dropping the negative sign as it is how far away it is from 0.
12 is the answer
hope this helps!