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Oksanka [162]
3 years ago
15

What is one reason why a government will deliberately inflate its national money supply?

Business
2 answers:
Alex73 [517]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

To increase aggregate demand

Explanation:

Inflation of national money supply is one of the tools of the monetary authority, that is the central bank of a country to stimulate aggregate demand. Government resort to increasing the money supply when it embarks on expansionary monetary policy to achieve certain macroeconomic goals or objectives. some of the monetary policy tools used to achieve this are : interest rate, reserve requirement, e.t.c.

Pie3 years ago
4 0

To attract oversea investors and working immigrants

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sweet-ann [11.9K]

Answer:

D

Explanation:

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3 years ago
FunnyTime Products uses humor in its ads to communicate with its fun-loving consumers. What type of ads does FunnyTime Products
pashok25 [27]

Answer: (C) Emotional

Explanation:

 The emotional advertisement is one of the type of emotional based appeal advertisement process that helps in communicating with the customers or consumers.

The emotional based advertisement include all the types of emotions so that the customers feel connected with the brand and the products in the market.

According to the given question, the Funny-time products  is basically using the emotional advertisement for communicating with the fun-loving customers. Therefore, Option (C) is correct answer.    

7 0
3 years ago
Sunset Corp. has a bond outstanding with a coupon rate of 5.94 percent and semiannual payments. The yield to maturity is 5.1 per
borishaifa [10]

Answer:

$2,189.76

Explanation:

<em>The price of a bond is the present value (PV) of the future cash inflows expected from the bond discounted using the yield to maturity.</em>

<em>The price of the bond can be calculated as follows:</em>

<em>Step 1</em>

<em>PV of interest payment</em>

Interest payment =( 5.94%× $2000)/2

= $59.4

Semi annual yield = 5.1/2 = 2.6%

PV of interest payment

= 59.4× (1-(1.026)^(-20×2))/0.026)

= 59.4 × 24.41400537

=<em>$ 1,450.19</em>

Step 2

<em>PV of  redemption value</em>

=  2,000 × (1+0.051)^(-20)

= 2,000 × 0.369781925

=   739.56

Step 3

<em>Price of bond  </em>

= $1,450.19 + $739.56  

=$2,189.76

6 0
3 years ago
Your firm has the opportunity to invest $90,000 in a new project opportunity but due to cash flow concerns, your boss wants to k
Rus_ich [418]

Answer:

Complete solution in tabular form  is given below:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Alpha Industries is considering a project with an initial cost of $9.7 million. The project will produce cash inflows of $1.67 m
vovikov84 [41]

Answer:

$660,000

Explanation:

WACC = [wD * kD * (1 - t)] + [wE * kE]

WACC = [(0.77 / 1.77)*6.12%* (1 - 0.40)] + [(1 / 1.77)*11.61%]

WACC = 1.60% + 6.56%

WACC = 8.16%

Present value of annuity = Annuity*[1-(1+interest rate)^-time period]/rate

Present value of annuity = $1.67*[1-(1.08156745763)^-9]/0.0816

Present value of annuity = $1.67*6.206374532

Present value of annuity = $10.36 million

NPV = Present value of inflows - Present value of outflows

NPV = $10.36 million - $9.7 million

NPV = $660,000

5 0
3 years ago
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