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Butoxors [25]
2 years ago
7

, suppose the book value of the debt issue is $70 million. In addition, the company has a second debt issue on the market, a zer

o coupon bond with 12 years left to maturity; the book value of this issue is $100 million and the bonds sell for 61 percent of par. What is the company’s total book value of debt? The total market value? What is your best estimate of the aftertax cost of debt now? (Assume that semi-annual compounding is used for the zero-coupon bond.)
Business
1 answer:
vlada-n [284]2 years ago
5 0

Answer: See explanation

Explanation:

a. The company's total book value of debt will be:

= Value of debt + Value of zero coupon bonds

= $70 million + $100 million

= $170 million

b. The market value will be:

= Quoted price × Par value

= ($70 × 1.08) + ($100 × 0.61)

= $75.6 + $61

= $136.6 million

c. The aftertax cost of debt will be:

= (1 - Tax rate) × Pre tax cost of debt

= (1 - 35%) × 5.7%

= 65% × 5.7%

= 3.7%

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Assume today’s settlement price on a CME EUR futures contract is $1.3140/EUR. You have a short position in one contract. Your pe
butalik [34]

Answer:

$1,875; $1,787.50; $2,837.50

$562.50

Explanation:

Initial balance in account = $1700 and 125,000 EUR is the contractual size of one EUR at a price of $1.3140

Day 1 : $1.3126

Closing price = (1.3140-1.3126)(125,000)

                     = $175;

Current balance = 1700 + 175

                            = $1,875

Day 2 : $1.3133

Closing price. = (1.3126 - 1.3133)(125,000)

                      = $87.50.

Current balance = 1875 - 87.50

                           = $1787.50 (Deduct in balance due to loss)

Day 3 : $1.3049

Closing price = (1.3133 - 1.3049)(125,000)

                      = $1050.

Current balance = 1787.50 + 1050

                           = $2837.50

Long position in future contract:

= 1700 + (1.3126 - 1.3140) + (1.3133 - 1.3126) + (1.3049 - 1.3133) × EUR 125,000

= $562.50

To bring back up to the initial performance bond level - we can experience a margin call requesting for additional funds be added to your performance bond account.

5 0
3 years ago
A city government purchased a new fire truck in Year 1 for $270,000. The city incurred an additional $ 30,000 in transportation
erica [24]

Answer:

correct option is  $0

Explanation:

given data

purchased  truck = $270,000

transportation and calibration costs = $30,000

life = 20 years

financed period = 15 year

solution

we know here that some expenses like insurance and depreciation etc is allocated by systematic and the rational procedure for some period

so that during that period related asset is expected to provide the benefit

and acquisition of capital asset is not record as expenses

we know  appropriate property and  plant or the equipment assets account are debit on  purchases

so that Depreciation expenses are recorded to reflect the allocation of costs of the asset to operation over service life of assets

so here correct option is  $0

6 0
3 years ago
On November 1, 2018, ABC signed a $100,000, 6%, six-month note payable with the amount borrowed plus accrued interest due six mo
Kryger [21]

Answer:

ABC

In recording the payment of the note plus accrued interest at maturity on May 1, 2019, ABC would: __________

Journal Entries:

May 1, 2019:

Debit Interest Payable $1,000

Debit Interest Expense $2,000

Debit Notes Payable $100,000

Credit Cash $103,000

To record the payment of the note plus accrued interest at maturity.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

November 1, 2018:

6% 6-month Note Payable = $100,000

December 31, 2018:

Accrued interest = $1,000 ($100,000 * 6% * 2/12) for 2 months

May 1, 2019:

Interest Expense = $2,000 ($100,000 * 6% * 4/12) for 4 months

Transaction Analysis on May 1, 2019:

Interest Payable $1,000 Interest Expense $2,000 6% Notes Payable $100,000 Cash $103,000

6 0
2 years ago
d (i). Suppose that ZX Inc. is currently selling at $50 per share. You buy 200 shares, using $5,000 of your own money and borrow
strojnjashka [21]

Answer:

-21%

Explanation:

Initial share price = $50

Share price after 1 year = $46

net return = (200 x $46) - $10,000 - ($5,000 x 5%) = $9,200 - $10,000 - $250 = -$1,050

rate of return of margined position = -$1,050 / $5,000 = -0.21 = -21%

when you operate on the margin, your earnings can increase or decrease dramatically. In this case, an 8% price decrease resulted in a 215 lose.

8 0
3 years ago
On January 3, 2014, Trusty Delivery Service purchased a truck at a cost of $90,000. Before placing the truck in service, Trusty
likoan [24]

Answer:

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 - 5 under:

  • the Straight-line method is $90,000.
  • the Units-of-production method is $90,000.
  • the Double-declining-balance method is $86,170.

Explanation:

The total cost of the asset is $90,000 + $3,000 + $1,500 + $4,500 = $99,000, since all the other costs were directly attributable cost and were necessary to bring the asset to usable form.

  • The painting is capitalized because it is the first time Trust Delivery would be using the asset, otherwise it would have been expended
  • Overhauling cost can be regarded as a separate asset, if we were provided with different useful lives - componentization.

Under straight-line method, depreciation expense is (cost - residual value) / No of years = ($99,000 - $9,000) / 5 years = $18,000 yearly depreciation expense.

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 to 5 is $18,000 x 5 years $90,000.

The unit-of-production method is used when the asset value closely relates to the units of output it is able to produce. It is expressed with the formula below:

(Original Cost - Salvage value) / Estimated production capacity x Units/year

At Year 1, depreciation expense (DE) is: ($99,000 - $9,000) / 100,000 miles x 22,500 miles = $20,250/year

Accumulated depreciation for the first four years is $20,250 x 4 years = $81,000.

At Year 5, depreciation = $90,000 / 100,000 miles x 10,000 miles = $9,000

Note that this depreciation method results in higher depreciation charge when the asset is heavily used, at this time, it was in Years 1 - 4.

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 5, under this method, is $90,000 (addition of first four years and the Year 5).

The double-declining method is otherwise known as the reducing balance method and is given by the formula below:

Double declining method = 2 X SLDP X BV

SLDP = straight-line depreciation percentage

BV = Book value

SLDP is 100%/5years = 20%, then 20% multiplied by 2 to give 40%

At Year 1, 40% X $99,000 = $39,600

At Year 2, 40% X $59,400 ($99,000 - $39,600) = $23,760

At Year 3, 40% X $35,640 ($59,400 - $23,760) = $14,256

At Year 4, 40% X $21,384 ($35,640 - $14,256) = $8,554 approximately (the depreciation expense would stop at this stage since the amount falls below the residual value).

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 4, under this method, is $86,170 (addition of all the yearly depreciation).

7 0
3 years ago
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