Answer:
1/14
Step-by-step explanation:
The total number of coins in the bag is 10+6+5, or 21.
You reach into the bag and take ONE coin. The chances of that being a nickel is 6/21, or 2/7, since nickels compose 6 of the 21 coins in the bag.
You don't replace the nickel.
Now you have 20 coins in the bag, including 5 nickels.
The chances of your next draw being a dime is 5/20, or 1/4, since there are 5 dimes in the bag.
The joint probability of drawing a nickel and then a dime is then the product of these two probabilities:
(2/7)(1/4) = 2/28 = 1/14
Answer:
You can use simple math formulas and equations to solve this problem, so instead of going onto brainly for free answers try using your brain for once
oh wait you dont have one
A, because parallelogram is the same as a rectangle, just tilted a bit. therefore the method is just base X height.
Answer:
the answer is on photomath
Answer:
480.6 ; 440.5, 8 mode values
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that :
Given the data :
486, 358, 395, 759,496, 692, 353, 306
Rearranged data: 306, 353, 358, 395, 486, 496, 692, 759
The mean:
Σx/ n
n = sample size = 8
Σx = sum of all data values = 3845
Mean = 3845 / 8
Mean = 480.6
The median :
0.5(n + 1)th term
0.5(8 + 1) th term
0.5(9)th term
= 4.5term
(4th + 5th term) / 2
(395 + 486) / 2
= 440.5
The mode = most frequently occurring data value ; since all the data values have a frequency of 1, then the number of modes = 8.