I can't really answer your question (as I don't really know enough about 18th century France), but I just want to clear up an (understandable) misconception about Feudalism in your question.
The French revolution was adamant and explicit in its abolition of 'feudalism'. However, the 'feudalism' it was talking about had nothing at all to do with medieval 'feudalism' (which, of course, never existed). What the revolutionaries had in mind, in my own understanding of it, was the legally privileged position of the aristocracy/2nd estate. This type of 'feudalism' was a creation of early modern lawyers and, as a result, is better seen as a product of the early-modern monarchical nation-state, than as a precursor to it. It has nothing to do with the pre-nation-state medieval period, or with the Crusades.
Eighteenth-century buffs, feel free to chip in if I've misrepresented anything, as this is mostly coming from my readings about the historiographical development of feudalism, not any revolutionary France expertise, so I may well have misinterpreted things.
The Declaration of Independence is still important today because it signifies the birth of a nation, instructs free citizens and provides hope for all people who want to be free. The Declaration is the birth certificate of America. ... It also reminds us the reasons the United States separated from England.
The church a catholic church had begun to desire and turn itself into something it was not. It was looking for power and wealth, it wasn't so much as the church itself but the people running the church!
Answer:
C
Explanation:
because so many soldiers were lost on both sides and they mourned more than celebrated
