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galina1969 [7]
3 years ago
6

An automobile owner has 40% chance of having exactly one accident in a year and 60% chance of having no accidents in a year. The

re is no chance that the automobile owner incurs more than one accident in a year.
If there is an accident, the loss amount has the following distribution:
Loss Amount Probability
30 0.30
60 0.15
100 0.45
180 0.10
Suppose there is an ordinary deductible of $40 and the maximum payment by the insurer is $130.
Determine the standard deviation of the payment made by the insurer to the automobile owner.
A: 32.44
B: 33.60
C: 34.77
D: 26.78
E: 27.43
Mathematics
1 answer:
sergey [27]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

A. 32.44

Step-by-step explanation:

Automobile owner has 40% chance for one accident in a year and 60% of zero accident in a year.

Let x is the loss of accident and y is the payment by insurer.

Y = 0 if X < 40,

x - 40 if 40 < x < 130

130 if x \geq 170

Then, Var [y] = E y^2

Var [y] = 1052.16

E = 32.437.

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3 years ago
Consider m = y2 - y1/ x2 - x1 . Which x1 and x2-values would determine that the line is vertical? Justify your answer
Y_Kistochka [10]

Answer:

x_2=x_1

Step-by-step explanation:

We were given the slope formula;

m=\frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}

This line is vertical if the denominator is zero.

That is when x_2-x-1=0

This implies that;

x_2=x_1

Justification;

When x_2=x_1, then, the line passes through;

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The slope now become

m=\frac{y_2-y_1}{x_1-x_1}=\frac{y_2-y_1}{0}

The equation of the line is

y-y_1=\frac{y_2-y_1}{0}(x-x_1)

This implies that;

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0=(y_2-y_1)(x-x_1)

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3 0
3 years ago
What is the measure of an angle if it is 260 degrees less than six times its own complement?
poizon [28]

Answer:

40 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

Complementary angles have a sum of 90.

y = 90 - x

The angle is 260 degrees less than six times its complement.

y = 6x - 260

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350 - x = 6x

350 = 7x

50 = x

This is the measure of the complement.

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y = 90 - 50

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This is the measure of the first angle.

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
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