Answer:
6.75kg of fruit
Step-by-step explanation:
5 + 1 = 6
.15 + .6 = .75
6 + .75 = 6.75
Answer:
I think its 6 numbers . See below
Step-by-step explanation:
The numbers must end in 0 because they must be divisible by 2 and 5
240 is one number it is the first number between 200 and 500 which is divisible by the 5 numbers.
The LCM of the 5 numbers is 60 so we can add 300, 360, 420 and 480 to the list.
Answer:
92
Step-by-step explanation:
Let the number be x.
As per the question,
3/4x - 18 = 1/2x + 5
(4)3/4x - (4)18 = (4)1/2x + (4)5
3x - 72 = 2x + 20
x = 92
The number is 92.
Answer:
4) About 96% of newborn girls were the same length as Alexandria.
Step-by-step explanation:
The probability of selecting exactly one ace is its likelihood
The probability that a five-card poker hand contains exactly one ace is 29.95%
<h3>How to determine the probability?</h3>
There are 4 aces in a standard deck of 52 cards.
The probability of selecting an ace would be:
p = 4/52
Also, there are 48 non-ace cards in the standard deck
So, the probability of selecting a non-ace after an ace has been selected is:
p = 48/51
The probability of selecting a non-ace up to the fifth selection are:
- After two cards have been selected is: 47/50.
- After three cards have been selected is: 46/49.
- After four cards have been selected is: 45/48.
The required probability is then calculated as:
P(1 Ace) = n * (4/52) * (48/51) * (47/50) * (46/49) * (45/48)
Where n is the number of cards i.e. 5
So, we have:
P(1 Ace) = 5 * (4/52) * (48/51) * (47/50) * (46/49) * (45/48)
Evaluate
P(1 Ace) = 0.2995
Express as percentage
P(1 Ace) = 29.95%
Hence, the probability that a five-card poker hand contains exactly one ace is 29.95%
Read more about probability at:
brainly.com/question/25870256
