Answer:
5,110,000 and 5,170,000.
Explanation:
earnings per share EPS = (net income - preferred dividends) / weighted average of outstanding shares
- 4,800,000 at the beginning of the year
- 200,000 issued April 1 = 200,000 x 9/12 = 150,000
- 480,000 issued September 1 = 480,000 x 4/12 = 160,000
weighted average outstanding shares = 4,800,000 + 150,00 + 160,000 = 5,110,000
diluted shares = ($6,000,000 / $1,000) x 40 x 3/12 = 60,000
diluted EPS = (net income - preferred dividends) / (weighted average of outstanding shares + diluted shares)
weighted average of outstanding shares + diluted shares = 5,110,000 + 60,000 = 5,170,000 shares
I'm not gonna tell u the answer but u have to set 60:40 as a ratio to set it as a ratio u put 60/40 and then simplify to simplify those two number u have to divide by ten and find the relationship of those two number after y simplify and get ur number u scale up or down so after All those u have a fraction and then do the steps all over to $10,000
Answer:
The answer is $12,297.
Explanation:
Denote x is the minimum amount of after-tax annual savings (including depreciation effects) needed to make the investment yield a 12% return.
As required in the question, at $X annual after-tax saving, the net present value of the project discounted at the required return 12% will be equal to 0. So, we have:
- Net initial investment + Present value of cash inflow from asset disposal in 5-year + Present value of 5 after-tax annual savings = 0 <=> -50,000 + 10,000 x 0.567 + X x 3.605 = 0 <=> 3.605X = 44,330 <=> X = $12,297 (rounded to the nearest whole dollar).
Thus, the answer is $12,297.
Answer:
b. the seller has legal title to the goods until they are delivered.
Explanation:
When the goods are in the transit and are shipped FOB destination, the title of the goods would be with the seller. If the goods are delivered, then the legal title would be transferred from the seller to the buyer. Until the goods are in transit, the legal title is with the seller itself.
Both the parties are eligible for the legal title. It can be either a buyer or seller depending upon the situations
Hence, the correct option is b and the rest options are wrong
Answer:
The thief has a 0.11% probability of hitting the pin code on the first try.
Explanation:
Simply, if the ATM card has a 3-digit code that can be repeated, and the board has 9 numbers (for example, from 1 to 9), we must start from the smallest number that could be formed with these numbers to the highest number that these numbers could also compose, which in the case would be 111 and 999. Then, 889 different numbers could be formed (it is the distance between 111 and 999), with which the possibility of hitting the key to the first attempt would be 1 in 889 times, or 1/889.
To take the probability to a percentage, we must know that 889 / 8.89 gives 100. Therefore, dividing 1 / 8.89 we will know the percentage of probabilities of hitting the key on the first attempt: 1 / 8.89 = 0.11.
This shows us that the thief has a 0.11% probability of hitting the key on the first try.
