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masha68 [24]
2 years ago
7

4.- ¿Qué es lo más importante de lo que creemos?

History
1 answer:
Anit [1.1K]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

the answer to 4. c

the answer to 3. c

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A potential negative result of trade agreements is protectionism. sanctions. job loss. higher tariffs.
Furkat [3]

Answer:

C.) Job loss

Explanation:

A.) is incorrect because protectionism is reduced when countries engage in more trade agreements. Reducing protectionism is generally seen as a good thing. Protectionism involves protecting a country's economy mainly by taxing imports. The fact that countries are willing to participate in more trade with other countries directly opposes this theory.

B.) is incorrect because sanctions involve decreasing trade with other countries. Sanctions are some form of penalties a country places on another to pressure or protect themselves against that country. Sanctions make it more difficult to purchase international products and can negatively impact domestic businesses and citizens.

C.) is correct because this is the only negative consequence of more trade agreements. When trade expands, citizens have an easier time buying products from other countries. If citizens begin to purchase less domestic products, some companies may lose business. With less business comes more lay offs and lost jobs.

D.) is incorrect because tariffs would be loosened if trade agreements are reached. Tariffs are taxes placed on items entering a country that are meant to discourage international purchases. Lower taxes on foreign items makes the products cheaper for consumers.

7 0
1 year ago
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The work of Sigmund Freud directly involved __________________. Select all that apply. psychoanalysis experiments in physicsthe
notka56 [123]
- Psychoanalysis
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3 years ago
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What ethnic group is the dominant political group in Afghanistan
Blizzard [7]
Pashtun would be your answer hope this helps
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2 years ago
Think about Laissez-Faire policies. Do you think the owners of these factories would like them? Why or why not?
julsineya [31]

As I understand it, Laissez-faire ideology maintains that the "free market" is the best way to determine what businesses can and should do. This means that businesses, in competition with one another, should be free to determine their paths free from any government rules or regulations. The belief is that the competition among various businesses will ultimately result in the best outcomes for society in general - Adam Smith's "invisible hand". As part of this philosophy, workers should also be free to compete with each other and choose to work wherever they wish and this process will also result in the best results for the workers as well.

However, isn't there a huge assumption in this philosophy? Doesn't the whole justification of this belief depends on the condition that there is perfect competition and that any company and any worker have the equal ability to compete with one another?

What if there is no perfect competition? What if some companies have advantages - due to any of a whole array of reasons - that place them in a non-competitive position vis a vis their competitors? Without perfect competition then other companies are not necessarily able to compete with other companies that have certain advantages. If such a situation exists, then advantaged companies may have the ability to pursue a course that results in their private benefit, but not necessarily to the benefit of society as a whole. The same would apply to workers in that reduced competition among companies would result in decreased leverage for potential employees.

To recap, if the Laissez-faire ideology maintains the best economic policy for society as a whole, and it depends on there being perfect competition on an ongoing basis with minimal government intervention, doesn't it fall apart if there is less than the perfect competition?

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1 year ago
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