Answer:
B) $90,000
Explanation:
The market value of the unlevered equity can be calculated using the following formula:
Expected value = Σpx
Where:
p = the probability of each outcome
=50% in this case for both weak and strong economy.
x = the present value of cash flow for each outcome which is $90,000 in case of weak economy and $117,000 in case of strong economy.
Expected value= 0.50(90,000(1+15%)^-1)+0.50(117,000(1+15%)^-1)
                          =0.50(78,260.87)+0.50(101,739.13)
                          =$90,000
So the answer is B) $90,000
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
$1,524 underapplied
Explanation:
Predetermined overhead rate = Estimated Manufacturing Overhead ÷ Estimated Activity.
                                                   = $560,324 ÷ 22,060 
                                                   = $25.40
Applied Overheads = Predetermined overhead rate × Actual Activity
                                  = $25.40 × 22,000
                                 = $558,800
<em>Where,</em>
Actual Overheads are  $560,324 (given)
<em>Conditions :</em>
If Actual Overheads > Applied Overheads, we say overheads are under-applied and if Actual Overheads < Applied Overheads, we say that overheads are over-applied.
<em>Therefore ,</em>
In our case, Actual Overheads : $560,324 > Applied Overheads : $558,800. Overheads have been under-applied by $1,524 ($560,324 - $558,800).
 
        
             
        
        
        
Oh my chocolate milkshake so many IT can color Pepsi turn around there’s a grand kick your out of a
        
             
        
        
        
Cost of equity is calculated as -
Cost of equity = Risk free return + Beta * (Market risk - Risk free return)
Given,
Risk free return = 5.3 %
Market risk = 12 %
Beta = 1.05
Cost of equity = 5.3 % + (1.05*(12-5.3%))
Cost of equity = 12.335 % or 12.24 %
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
YTM = 8.93%
YTC = 8.47% 
Explanation:

The first part is the present value of the coupon payment until the bond is called.
The second is the present value of the called amount
P = market price value = 1,200
C = annual coupon payment = 1,000 x 12% 120
C/2 = 60
CP = called value = 1,060
t = time = 6 years

Using Financial calculator we get the YTC
8.467835879% 

The first part is the present value of the coupon payment until manurity
The second is the present value of the redeem value at maturity 
P = market price value = 1,200
C = coupon payment = 1,000 x 12%/2 = 60
C/2 = 60
F = face value = 1,060
t = time = 10 years
Using Financial calculator we get the YTM
8.9337714%